NUR 555 Quiz 3 Questions and Correct Answers
plus Rationale | New Update 2026-2027 | SNHU
Question 1: What does the student learn about erythrocytes?
A. 20 to 30 days
B. 60 to 90 days
C. 200 to 240 days
D. 100 to 120 days
Correct Answer: D. 100 to 120 days
Rationale: Erythrocytes (red blood cells) have a normal life span of approximately
100 to 120 days. Because they lack a nucleus and mitochondria, erythrocytes
cannot undergo mitotic division or repair themselves. They are continuously
produced in the bone marrow and removed by tissue macrophages, primarily in
the spleen, at the end of their life span. Option A (20-30 days) is far too short; this
time frame is more typical of platelets (7-10 days) or some white blood cells.
Option B (60-90 days) is too short. Option C (200-240 days) is too long.
Understanding erythrocyte life span is important for understanding anemias, as
conditions that shorten erythrocyte survival (hemolytic anemias) or impair
production (bone marrow disorders) can lead to anemia. The normal life span of
erythrocytes is critical for interpreting laboratory tests such as the reticulocyte
count, which reflects bone marrow response to anemia.
Question 2: Shortened erythrocyte life span is affected by the marrow response
to erythropoietin, and altered iron metabolism describe the pathophysiologic
characteristics of which type of anemia?
A. Aplastic
B. Anemia of chronic disease
C. Iron deficiency
D. Sideroblastic
Correct Answer: B. Anemia of chronic disease
,Rationale: Anemia of chronic disease (ACD) specifically results from a combination
of factors: (1) decreased erythrocyte life span, (2) suppressed production of
erythropoietin, (3) bone marrow erythroid progenitor cells' inadequate response
to erythropoietin, and (4) altered iron metabolism and iron sequestration in
macrophages. In ACD, inflammation leads to increased hepcidin production, which
causes iron to be trapped in macrophages and reduces iron absorption from the
gut. This results in a functional iron deficiency despite normal or increased total
body iron stores. Option A (Aplastic anemia) involves bone marrow failure with
pancytopenia. Option C (Iron deficiency anemia) is caused by inadequate iron
stores, not by sequestration. Option D (Sideroblastic anemia) involves defective
heme synthesis with ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow. ACD is the most
common anemia in hospitalized patients and is associated with chronic infections,
inflammatory disorders, and malignancies.
Question 3: The healthcare professional explains to a student that glucose 6-
phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is what type of inherited disorder?
A. X-linked dominant
B. Autosomal dominant
C. X-linked recessive
D. Autosomal recessive
Correct Answer: C. X-linked recessive
Rationale: Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is an inherited
X-linked recessive disorder. The G6PD gene is located on the X chromosome.
Because males have only one X chromosome, they are more severely affected if
they inherit the mutation. Females, with two X chromosomes, are typically
carriers unless they have a mutation on both X chromosomes (homozygous).
G6PD deficiency causes hemolytic anemia when erythrocytes are exposed to
oxidative stress (e.g., certain drugs, fava beans, infection). Option A (X-linked
dominant) is incorrect; this inheritance pattern is rare. Option B (Autosomal
dominant) is incorrect; autosomal means the gene is on a non-sex chromosome.
Option D (Autosomal recessive) is incorrect for the same reason. G6PD deficiency
is one of the most common enzyme deficiencies worldwide, particularly affecting
individuals of African, Mediterranean, and Southeast Asian descent.
, Question 4: A patient is 8 hours postoperative after a long orthopedic
procedure. The student asks why this patient is at particular risk of developing a
thromboembolism. What response by the healthcare professional is best?
A. Endothelial damage occurs and repair is slowed by postoperative pain.
B. Atherosclerotic build up causes turbulent blood flow leading to clots.
C. Patients tend to have venous stasis from orthopedic operations.
D. Anesthetic agents often cause an immune response against clotting factors.
Correct Answer: C. Patients tend to have venous stasis from orthopedic
operations.
Rationale: Thromboembolic events are caused by some component of Virchow's
triad: endothelial injury, venous stasis, and hypercoagulability. Long operative
procedures such as orthopedic surgeries are associated with venous stasis due to
immobility during and after surgery. This stasis allows blood to pool in the lower
extremities, increasing the risk of clot formation. Option A is incorrect because
endothelial repair is not appreciably hindered by pain. Option B is incorrect
because atherosclerotic buildup can lead to endothelial injury, but that is not
specific to this patient's postoperative state. Option D is incorrect because
anesthetic agents are not typically implicated in thromboembolic events.
Postoperative patients are also at risk for hypercoagulability due to the surgical
stress response and tissue injury. Prevention strategies include early mobilization,
compression devices, and anticoagulation.
Question 5: A patient's absolute neutrophil count (ANC) is 396. What should the
healthcare professional do?
A. Implements protocols to prevent life-threatening infections
B. Encourages the patient to limit any visitors for the present time
C. Does nothing; this is a normal ANC for the white cell count
D. Holds the patient's medications until the ANC returns to normal
Correct Answer: A. Implements protocols to prevent life-threatening infections
plus Rationale | New Update 2026-2027 | SNHU
Question 1: What does the student learn about erythrocytes?
A. 20 to 30 days
B. 60 to 90 days
C. 200 to 240 days
D. 100 to 120 days
Correct Answer: D. 100 to 120 days
Rationale: Erythrocytes (red blood cells) have a normal life span of approximately
100 to 120 days. Because they lack a nucleus and mitochondria, erythrocytes
cannot undergo mitotic division or repair themselves. They are continuously
produced in the bone marrow and removed by tissue macrophages, primarily in
the spleen, at the end of their life span. Option A (20-30 days) is far too short; this
time frame is more typical of platelets (7-10 days) or some white blood cells.
Option B (60-90 days) is too short. Option C (200-240 days) is too long.
Understanding erythrocyte life span is important for understanding anemias, as
conditions that shorten erythrocyte survival (hemolytic anemias) or impair
production (bone marrow disorders) can lead to anemia. The normal life span of
erythrocytes is critical for interpreting laboratory tests such as the reticulocyte
count, which reflects bone marrow response to anemia.
Question 2: Shortened erythrocyte life span is affected by the marrow response
to erythropoietin, and altered iron metabolism describe the pathophysiologic
characteristics of which type of anemia?
A. Aplastic
B. Anemia of chronic disease
C. Iron deficiency
D. Sideroblastic
Correct Answer: B. Anemia of chronic disease
,Rationale: Anemia of chronic disease (ACD) specifically results from a combination
of factors: (1) decreased erythrocyte life span, (2) suppressed production of
erythropoietin, (3) bone marrow erythroid progenitor cells' inadequate response
to erythropoietin, and (4) altered iron metabolism and iron sequestration in
macrophages. In ACD, inflammation leads to increased hepcidin production, which
causes iron to be trapped in macrophages and reduces iron absorption from the
gut. This results in a functional iron deficiency despite normal or increased total
body iron stores. Option A (Aplastic anemia) involves bone marrow failure with
pancytopenia. Option C (Iron deficiency anemia) is caused by inadequate iron
stores, not by sequestration. Option D (Sideroblastic anemia) involves defective
heme synthesis with ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow. ACD is the most
common anemia in hospitalized patients and is associated with chronic infections,
inflammatory disorders, and malignancies.
Question 3: The healthcare professional explains to a student that glucose 6-
phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is what type of inherited disorder?
A. X-linked dominant
B. Autosomal dominant
C. X-linked recessive
D. Autosomal recessive
Correct Answer: C. X-linked recessive
Rationale: Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is an inherited
X-linked recessive disorder. The G6PD gene is located on the X chromosome.
Because males have only one X chromosome, they are more severely affected if
they inherit the mutation. Females, with two X chromosomes, are typically
carriers unless they have a mutation on both X chromosomes (homozygous).
G6PD deficiency causes hemolytic anemia when erythrocytes are exposed to
oxidative stress (e.g., certain drugs, fava beans, infection). Option A (X-linked
dominant) is incorrect; this inheritance pattern is rare. Option B (Autosomal
dominant) is incorrect; autosomal means the gene is on a non-sex chromosome.
Option D (Autosomal recessive) is incorrect for the same reason. G6PD deficiency
is one of the most common enzyme deficiencies worldwide, particularly affecting
individuals of African, Mediterranean, and Southeast Asian descent.
, Question 4: A patient is 8 hours postoperative after a long orthopedic
procedure. The student asks why this patient is at particular risk of developing a
thromboembolism. What response by the healthcare professional is best?
A. Endothelial damage occurs and repair is slowed by postoperative pain.
B. Atherosclerotic build up causes turbulent blood flow leading to clots.
C. Patients tend to have venous stasis from orthopedic operations.
D. Anesthetic agents often cause an immune response against clotting factors.
Correct Answer: C. Patients tend to have venous stasis from orthopedic
operations.
Rationale: Thromboembolic events are caused by some component of Virchow's
triad: endothelial injury, venous stasis, and hypercoagulability. Long operative
procedures such as orthopedic surgeries are associated with venous stasis due to
immobility during and after surgery. This stasis allows blood to pool in the lower
extremities, increasing the risk of clot formation. Option A is incorrect because
endothelial repair is not appreciably hindered by pain. Option B is incorrect
because atherosclerotic buildup can lead to endothelial injury, but that is not
specific to this patient's postoperative state. Option D is incorrect because
anesthetic agents are not typically implicated in thromboembolic events.
Postoperative patients are also at risk for hypercoagulability due to the surgical
stress response and tissue injury. Prevention strategies include early mobilization,
compression devices, and anticoagulation.
Question 5: A patient's absolute neutrophil count (ANC) is 396. What should the
healthcare professional do?
A. Implements protocols to prevent life-threatening infections
B. Encourages the patient to limit any visitors for the present time
C. Does nothing; this is a normal ANC for the white cell count
D. Holds the patient's medications until the ANC returns to normal
Correct Answer: A. Implements protocols to prevent life-threatening infections
