NRMS 5190 Advanced Pathophysiology Exam 1 Review Questions and Answers
with Rationales | 2026/27 Update | 100% Correct -SUNY Downstate Medical
Center
Questions 1–10: Concepts of Health, Disease & Cellular
Function
1. Which term refers specifically to the cause of a disease?
A. Pathogenesis
B. Etiology
C. Morphology
D. Prognosis
Answer: B. Etiology
Rationale: Etiology describes the cause or contributing causes of a disease. Pathogenesis
describes the sequence of events through which the etiologic factor produces disease.
2. A clinician is describing the sequence of cellular events that begins after
exposure to a pathogen and ultimately produces clinical symptoms. Which
concept is being described?
A. Etiology
B. Pathogenesis
C. Morbidity
D. Diagnosis
Answer: B. Pathogenesis
Rationale: Pathogenesis explains how disease develops, from the initial insult through cellular
and tissue alterations to clinical expression.
3. A diagnostic test correctly identifies 98 of 100 patients who actually have a
disease. Which characteristic of the test is being measured?
A. Specificity
B. Reliability
,C. Sensitivity
D. Predictive value
Answer: C. Sensitivity
Rationale: Sensitivity measures the proportion of people with the disease who test positive.
Highly sensitive tests produce relatively few false-negative results.
4. Which finding reflects high diagnostic-test specificity?
A. Few false-negative results
B. Few false-positive results
C. High disease prevalence
D. High disease incidence
Answer: B. Few false-positive results
Rationale: Specificity measures how well a test correctly identifies patients without disease. A
highly specific test has a low false-positive rate.
5. Vaccinating a healthy adult against influenza represents which level of
prevention?
A. Primordial
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary
Answer: B. Primary
Rationale: Primary prevention attempts to prevent disease before it occurs by reducing exposure
or susceptibility.
6. Screening an asymptomatic patient for colorectal cancer is an example of:
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Palliative prevention
,Answer: B. Secondary prevention
Rationale: Secondary prevention emphasizes early detection of disease while treatment may be
most effective.
7. Which cellular structure is the principal site of protein synthesis?
A. Lysosome
B. Ribosome
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Mitochondrion
Answer: B. Ribosome
Rationale: Ribosomes translate messenger RNA into polypeptide chains and therefore are the
major cellular sites of protein synthesis.
8. Transcription normally produces:
A. DNA from RNA
B. Protein from RNA
C. RNA from a DNA template
D. ATP from glucose
Answer: C. RNA from a DNA template
Rationale: During transcription, information encoded in DNA is copied into RNA, particularly
messenger RNA.
9. Translation occurs primarily:
A. In the nucleus
B. At ribosomes
C. Within lysosomes
D. In the Golgi apparatus
Answer: B. At ribosomes
Rationale: During translation, ribosomes read the mRNA sequence and assemble the
corresponding amino-acid chain.
, 10. Which transport mechanism moves sodium out of a cell and potassium into a
cell against their concentration gradients?
A. Osmosis
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase
D. Simple diffusion
Answer: C. Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase
Rationale: The sodium-potassium pump uses ATP to transport 3 Na⁺ out and 2 K⁺ into the cell
against their electrochemical gradients.
Questions 11–20: Cellular Adaptation, Injury
& Death
11. Enlargement of individual skeletal-muscle cells after resistance training is an
example of:
A. Hyperplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Hypertrophy
D. Dysplasia
Answer: C. Hypertrophy
Rationale: Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size, resulting in enlargement of the affected organ
or tissue.
12. An increase in the number of cells in a tissue is called:
A. Atrophy
B. Hyperplasia
C. Hypertrophy
D. Metaplasia
Answer: B. Hyperplasia
with Rationales | 2026/27 Update | 100% Correct -SUNY Downstate Medical
Center
Questions 1–10: Concepts of Health, Disease & Cellular
Function
1. Which term refers specifically to the cause of a disease?
A. Pathogenesis
B. Etiology
C. Morphology
D. Prognosis
Answer: B. Etiology
Rationale: Etiology describes the cause or contributing causes of a disease. Pathogenesis
describes the sequence of events through which the etiologic factor produces disease.
2. A clinician is describing the sequence of cellular events that begins after
exposure to a pathogen and ultimately produces clinical symptoms. Which
concept is being described?
A. Etiology
B. Pathogenesis
C. Morbidity
D. Diagnosis
Answer: B. Pathogenesis
Rationale: Pathogenesis explains how disease develops, from the initial insult through cellular
and tissue alterations to clinical expression.
3. A diagnostic test correctly identifies 98 of 100 patients who actually have a
disease. Which characteristic of the test is being measured?
A. Specificity
B. Reliability
,C. Sensitivity
D. Predictive value
Answer: C. Sensitivity
Rationale: Sensitivity measures the proportion of people with the disease who test positive.
Highly sensitive tests produce relatively few false-negative results.
4. Which finding reflects high diagnostic-test specificity?
A. Few false-negative results
B. Few false-positive results
C. High disease prevalence
D. High disease incidence
Answer: B. Few false-positive results
Rationale: Specificity measures how well a test correctly identifies patients without disease. A
highly specific test has a low false-positive rate.
5. Vaccinating a healthy adult against influenza represents which level of
prevention?
A. Primordial
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary
Answer: B. Primary
Rationale: Primary prevention attempts to prevent disease before it occurs by reducing exposure
or susceptibility.
6. Screening an asymptomatic patient for colorectal cancer is an example of:
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Palliative prevention
,Answer: B. Secondary prevention
Rationale: Secondary prevention emphasizes early detection of disease while treatment may be
most effective.
7. Which cellular structure is the principal site of protein synthesis?
A. Lysosome
B. Ribosome
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Mitochondrion
Answer: B. Ribosome
Rationale: Ribosomes translate messenger RNA into polypeptide chains and therefore are the
major cellular sites of protein synthesis.
8. Transcription normally produces:
A. DNA from RNA
B. Protein from RNA
C. RNA from a DNA template
D. ATP from glucose
Answer: C. RNA from a DNA template
Rationale: During transcription, information encoded in DNA is copied into RNA, particularly
messenger RNA.
9. Translation occurs primarily:
A. In the nucleus
B. At ribosomes
C. Within lysosomes
D. In the Golgi apparatus
Answer: B. At ribosomes
Rationale: During translation, ribosomes read the mRNA sequence and assemble the
corresponding amino-acid chain.
, 10. Which transport mechanism moves sodium out of a cell and potassium into a
cell against their concentration gradients?
A. Osmosis
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase
D. Simple diffusion
Answer: C. Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase
Rationale: The sodium-potassium pump uses ATP to transport 3 Na⁺ out and 2 K⁺ into the cell
against their electrochemical gradients.
Questions 11–20: Cellular Adaptation, Injury
& Death
11. Enlargement of individual skeletal-muscle cells after resistance training is an
example of:
A. Hyperplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Hypertrophy
D. Dysplasia
Answer: C. Hypertrophy
Rationale: Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size, resulting in enlargement of the affected organ
or tissue.
12. An increase in the number of cells in a tissue is called:
A. Atrophy
B. Hyperplasia
C. Hypertrophy
D. Metaplasia
Answer: B. Hyperplasia
