FOCUSED PRACTICE TEST * 2026/2027
NR602
Women's Health &
Gynecologic Disorders
100-Question Focused Practice Test
Preventive gynecology, menstrual disorders, vaginitis and STIs, pelvic pain, PCOS, endometriosis, fibroids,
menopause, breast health, urinary concerns, and gynecologic cancer recognition.
100 A-D 100
Practice Questions Multiple Choice Immediate Explanations
Original study and revision material * Clean print-ready format
, NR602 Women's Health & Gynecologic Disorders
100 original questions with the answer and explanation immediately after every question.
Instructions: Select the best answer for each question. The correct answer and detailed explanation appear immediately after every
item. Questions focus on women's health and gynecologic disorders in primary care.
Focused Women's Health Review
1 A 27-year-old reports thin, gray-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor that is stronger after
intercourse. Vaginal pH is 5.2. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A Bacterial vaginosis
B Atrophic vaginitis
C Vulvovaginal candidiasis
D Genital herpes
Answer: A. Bacterial vaginosis
Explanation: Bacterial vaginosis commonly causes a thin, homogeneous gray-white discharge, elevated vaginal
pH, and an amine or fishy odor. Vulvovaginal candidiasis more often causes thick pruritic discharge with a normal
vaginal pH.
2 A patient with bacterial vaginosis asks about treatment. Which regimen is a standard first-line
option for a symptomatic nonpregnant adult?
A Fluconazole 150 mg orally once
B Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
C Ceftriaxone intramuscularly once
D Doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
Answer: B. Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
Explanation: CDC guidance lists metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days as a recommended regimen for
symptomatic bacterial vaginosis. Fluconazole treats candidiasis, doxycycline is used for chlamydial infection, and
ceftriaxone is used for gonorrhea.
NR602 * Women's Health & Gynecologic Disorders * 100 Questions Page 2
, NR602 Women's Health & Gynecologic Disorders
100 original questions with the answer and explanation immediately after every question.
3 A 23-year-old has intense vulvar pruritus, erythema, and thick white clumpy discharge. Vaginal
pH is 4.2. Which condition is most likely?
A Bacterial vaginosis
B Gonococcal cervicitis
C Vulvovaginal candidiasis
D Trichomoniasis
Answer: C. Vulvovaginal candidiasis
Explanation: Vulvovaginal candidiasis classically causes marked vulvar itching and erythema with thick white
discharge and a normal acidic vaginal pH. Trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis usually raise vaginal pH.
4 A 31-year-old presents with frothy yellow-green discharge, vulvar irritation, and a
strawberry-appearing cervix. Which infection is most likely?
A Genital warts
B Candidiasis
C Bacterial vaginosis
D Trichomoniasis
Answer: D. Trichomoniasis
Explanation: Trichomoniasis may produce frothy yellow-green discharge, vaginal irritation, elevated pH, and
punctate cervical hemorrhages described as a strawberry cervix. Diagnosis is best confirmed with sensitive testing
such as a nucleic acid amplification test.
5 Which statement about trichomoniasis management in women is most accurate?
A Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days is recommended
B No partner management is needed
C A topical azole is preferred
D Treatment is unnecessary when symptoms are present
Answer: A. Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days is recommended
Explanation: For women, CDC guidance recommends multidose oral metronidazole for trichomoniasis. Sexual
partners should also be evaluated and treated as appropriate to reduce reinfection.
NR602 * Women's Health & Gynecologic Disorders * 100 Questions Page 3
, NR602 Women's Health & Gynecologic Disorders
100 original questions with the answer and explanation immediately after every question.
6 A sexually active 20-year-old has no symptoms and asks whether she should be screened for
chlamydia. Which response is most appropriate?
A Screening is only needed after age 30
B Screening is recommended annually for sexually active women younger than 25 years
C Routine screening is never recommended without symptoms
D Screening is only needed when pelvic pain occurs
Answer: B. Screening is recommended annually for sexually active women younger than 25 years
Explanation: Routine annual chlamydia screening is recommended for sexually active women younger than 25
years, because infection is frequently asymptomatic. Older women are screened when risk factors are present.
7 A 26-year-old has mucopurulent cervical discharge and easily induced cervical bleeding. Which
diagnosis should be strongly considered?
A Bartholin cyst
B Endometriosis
C Cervicitis
D Vulvodynia
Answer: C. Cervicitis
Explanation: Mucopurulent endocervical discharge and cervical friability are characteristic signs of cervicitis.
Common infectious causes include Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
8 Which test is generally preferred to diagnose uncomplicated urogenital chlamydia in an adult?
A Wet mount for clue cells
B Pap cytology alone
C Serum CA-125
D Nucleic acid amplification test
Answer: D. Nucleic acid amplification test
Explanation: Nucleic acid amplification testing is highly sensitive and specific for chlamydial infection and is the
preferred diagnostic approach for most urogenital specimens. Pap cytology and CA-125 do not diagnose chlamydia.
NR602 * Women's Health & Gynecologic Disorders * 100 Questions Page 4
NR602
Women's Health &
Gynecologic Disorders
100-Question Focused Practice Test
Preventive gynecology, menstrual disorders, vaginitis and STIs, pelvic pain, PCOS, endometriosis, fibroids,
menopause, breast health, urinary concerns, and gynecologic cancer recognition.
100 A-D 100
Practice Questions Multiple Choice Immediate Explanations
Original study and revision material * Clean print-ready format
, NR602 Women's Health & Gynecologic Disorders
100 original questions with the answer and explanation immediately after every question.
Instructions: Select the best answer for each question. The correct answer and detailed explanation appear immediately after every
item. Questions focus on women's health and gynecologic disorders in primary care.
Focused Women's Health Review
1 A 27-year-old reports thin, gray-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor that is stronger after
intercourse. Vaginal pH is 5.2. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A Bacterial vaginosis
B Atrophic vaginitis
C Vulvovaginal candidiasis
D Genital herpes
Answer: A. Bacterial vaginosis
Explanation: Bacterial vaginosis commonly causes a thin, homogeneous gray-white discharge, elevated vaginal
pH, and an amine or fishy odor. Vulvovaginal candidiasis more often causes thick pruritic discharge with a normal
vaginal pH.
2 A patient with bacterial vaginosis asks about treatment. Which regimen is a standard first-line
option for a symptomatic nonpregnant adult?
A Fluconazole 150 mg orally once
B Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
C Ceftriaxone intramuscularly once
D Doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
Answer: B. Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
Explanation: CDC guidance lists metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days as a recommended regimen for
symptomatic bacterial vaginosis. Fluconazole treats candidiasis, doxycycline is used for chlamydial infection, and
ceftriaxone is used for gonorrhea.
NR602 * Women's Health & Gynecologic Disorders * 100 Questions Page 2
, NR602 Women's Health & Gynecologic Disorders
100 original questions with the answer and explanation immediately after every question.
3 A 23-year-old has intense vulvar pruritus, erythema, and thick white clumpy discharge. Vaginal
pH is 4.2. Which condition is most likely?
A Bacterial vaginosis
B Gonococcal cervicitis
C Vulvovaginal candidiasis
D Trichomoniasis
Answer: C. Vulvovaginal candidiasis
Explanation: Vulvovaginal candidiasis classically causes marked vulvar itching and erythema with thick white
discharge and a normal acidic vaginal pH. Trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis usually raise vaginal pH.
4 A 31-year-old presents with frothy yellow-green discharge, vulvar irritation, and a
strawberry-appearing cervix. Which infection is most likely?
A Genital warts
B Candidiasis
C Bacterial vaginosis
D Trichomoniasis
Answer: D. Trichomoniasis
Explanation: Trichomoniasis may produce frothy yellow-green discharge, vaginal irritation, elevated pH, and
punctate cervical hemorrhages described as a strawberry cervix. Diagnosis is best confirmed with sensitive testing
such as a nucleic acid amplification test.
5 Which statement about trichomoniasis management in women is most accurate?
A Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days is recommended
B No partner management is needed
C A topical azole is preferred
D Treatment is unnecessary when symptoms are present
Answer: A. Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days is recommended
Explanation: For women, CDC guidance recommends multidose oral metronidazole for trichomoniasis. Sexual
partners should also be evaluated and treated as appropriate to reduce reinfection.
NR602 * Women's Health & Gynecologic Disorders * 100 Questions Page 3
, NR602 Women's Health & Gynecologic Disorders
100 original questions with the answer and explanation immediately after every question.
6 A sexually active 20-year-old has no symptoms and asks whether she should be screened for
chlamydia. Which response is most appropriate?
A Screening is only needed after age 30
B Screening is recommended annually for sexually active women younger than 25 years
C Routine screening is never recommended without symptoms
D Screening is only needed when pelvic pain occurs
Answer: B. Screening is recommended annually for sexually active women younger than 25 years
Explanation: Routine annual chlamydia screening is recommended for sexually active women younger than 25
years, because infection is frequently asymptomatic. Older women are screened when risk factors are present.
7 A 26-year-old has mucopurulent cervical discharge and easily induced cervical bleeding. Which
diagnosis should be strongly considered?
A Bartholin cyst
B Endometriosis
C Cervicitis
D Vulvodynia
Answer: C. Cervicitis
Explanation: Mucopurulent endocervical discharge and cervical friability are characteristic signs of cervicitis.
Common infectious causes include Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
8 Which test is generally preferred to diagnose uncomplicated urogenital chlamydia in an adult?
A Wet mount for clue cells
B Pap cytology alone
C Serum CA-125
D Nucleic acid amplification test
Answer: D. Nucleic acid amplification test
Explanation: Nucleic acid amplification testing is highly sensitive and specific for chlamydial infection and is the
preferred diagnostic approach for most urogenital specimens. Pap cytology and CA-125 do not diagnose chlamydia.
NR602 * Women's Health & Gynecologic Disorders * 100 Questions Page 4
