FOCUSED PRACTICE TEST * 2026/2027
NR602
Pregnancy &
Prenatal Care
100-Question Focused Practice Test
Pregnancy dating, prenatal screening, nutrition, normal adaptations, complications, fetal surveillance, maternal
safety, medications, and high-risk care.
100 A-D 100
Practice Questions Multiple Choice Immediate Explanations
Original study and revision material * Clean print-ready format * PassPointPro
, NR602 Pregnancy & Prenatal Care
100 original questions with the answer and explanation immediately after every question.
Instructions: Select the best answer for each question. The correct answer and explanation appear immediately after every item.
Questions are original and focus on pregnancy, prenatal care, screening, complications, fetal assessment, and clinical decision-making.
Focused Mixed Review
1 A patient reports a last menstrual period that began on January 10. Using Naegele's rule, what
is the estimated due date?
A September 10 of the same year.
B November 17 of the same year.
C October 10 of the following year.
D October 17 of the same year.
Answer: D. October 17 of the same year.
Explanation: Naegele's rule estimates the due date by adding 7 days to the first day of the LMP, subtracting 3 months, and adding 1
year when needed. January 10 therefore corresponds to approximately October 17.
2 What is the standard duration used when estimating a pregnancy due date from the first day
of the last menstrual period?
A About 280 days, or 40 weeks.
B About 210 days, or 30 weeks.
C About 245 days, or 35 weeks.
D About 315 days, or 45 weeks.
Answer: A. About 280 days, or 40 weeks.
Explanation: Pregnancy dating from the first day of the LMP uses an average gestational length of 280 days, which is 40 weeks.
This convention dates pregnancy from about 2 weeks before conception.
NR602 * Pregnancy & Prenatal Care * 100 Questions Page 2
, 3 A patient has a positive home pregnancy test. Which hormone is detected by most urine
pregnancy tests?
A Prolactin.
B Oxytocin.
C Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
D Follicle-stimulating hormone.
Answer: C. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
Explanation: Pregnancy tests detect hCG, which is produced after implantation by trophoblastic tissue. Levels rise rapidly in early
pregnancy and are detectable in urine and blood.
4 A patient has a negative urine pregnancy test 2 days before an expected menstrual period but
pregnancy is still suspected. What is the best explanation?
A Urine pregnancy tests become positive only after quickening.
B The test may have been performed before urinary hCG reached a detectable level.
C hCG is never present in urine during early pregnancy.
D A negative urine test always excludes pregnancy.
Answer: B. The test may have been performed before urinary hCG reached a detectable level.
Explanation: Testing very early can produce a false-negative result because hCG may not yet be high enough in urine. Repeating
the test after the missed period or obtaining a serum test may clarify the diagnosis.
5 Which laboratory studies are commonly included in the initial prenatal evaluation?
A Only a lipid panel and thyroid ultrasound.
B Only a fasting insulin level.
C Routine CT of the abdomen and pelvis.
D CBC, blood type and Rh status, antibody screen, infectious-disease testing, and urine testing.
Answer: D. CBC, blood type and Rh status, antibody screen, infectious-disease testing, and urine testing.
Explanation: Early prenatal care establishes baseline hematologic status, blood group and antibodies, infection risks, and urinary
findings. Additional tests are individualized according to history and risk.
NR602 * Pregnancy & Prenatal Care * 100 Questions Page 3
, 6 Why is maternal blood type and Rh status determined early in pregnancy?
A To identify patients at risk for Rh alloimmunization and guide anti-D immune globulin use when indicated.
B To determine fetal sex.
C To diagnose gestational diabetes.
D To predict the exact date of labor.
Answer: A. To identify patients at risk for Rh alloimmunization and guide anti-D immune globulin use when
indicated.
Explanation: Knowing Rh status and the antibody screen helps identify unsensitized Rh-negative patients who may benefit from Rh
immune globulin. It also identifies preexisting clinically significant antibodies that require a different management pathway.
7 A pregnant patient is found to be nonimmune to rubella. What is the appropriate plan?
A Give MMR vaccine immediately during pregnancy.
B No vaccination is ever needed.
C Avoid live rubella vaccination during pregnancy and vaccinate postpartum if otherwise appropriate.
D Treat with antibiotics throughout pregnancy.
Answer: C. Avoid live rubella vaccination during pregnancy and vaccinate postpartum if otherwise appropriate.
Explanation: MMR is a live attenuated vaccine and is not administered during pregnancy. Nonimmune patients are typically
counseled to avoid exposure and receive postpartum vaccination.
8 Which vaccine is recommended during each pregnancy, ideally during 27 to 36 weeks of
gestation?
A MMR.
B Tdap.
C Varicella.
D Live attenuated intranasal influenza vaccine.
Answer: B. Tdap.
Explanation: Tdap is recommended during each pregnancy, preferably in the early part of the 27-36 week window, to maximize
maternal antibody transfer and protect the newborn from pertussis.
NR602 * Pregnancy & Prenatal Care * 100 Questions Page 4
NR602
Pregnancy &
Prenatal Care
100-Question Focused Practice Test
Pregnancy dating, prenatal screening, nutrition, normal adaptations, complications, fetal surveillance, maternal
safety, medications, and high-risk care.
100 A-D 100
Practice Questions Multiple Choice Immediate Explanations
Original study and revision material * Clean print-ready format * PassPointPro
, NR602 Pregnancy & Prenatal Care
100 original questions with the answer and explanation immediately after every question.
Instructions: Select the best answer for each question. The correct answer and explanation appear immediately after every item.
Questions are original and focus on pregnancy, prenatal care, screening, complications, fetal assessment, and clinical decision-making.
Focused Mixed Review
1 A patient reports a last menstrual period that began on January 10. Using Naegele's rule, what
is the estimated due date?
A September 10 of the same year.
B November 17 of the same year.
C October 10 of the following year.
D October 17 of the same year.
Answer: D. October 17 of the same year.
Explanation: Naegele's rule estimates the due date by adding 7 days to the first day of the LMP, subtracting 3 months, and adding 1
year when needed. January 10 therefore corresponds to approximately October 17.
2 What is the standard duration used when estimating a pregnancy due date from the first day
of the last menstrual period?
A About 280 days, or 40 weeks.
B About 210 days, or 30 weeks.
C About 245 days, or 35 weeks.
D About 315 days, or 45 weeks.
Answer: A. About 280 days, or 40 weeks.
Explanation: Pregnancy dating from the first day of the LMP uses an average gestational length of 280 days, which is 40 weeks.
This convention dates pregnancy from about 2 weeks before conception.
NR602 * Pregnancy & Prenatal Care * 100 Questions Page 2
, 3 A patient has a positive home pregnancy test. Which hormone is detected by most urine
pregnancy tests?
A Prolactin.
B Oxytocin.
C Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
D Follicle-stimulating hormone.
Answer: C. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
Explanation: Pregnancy tests detect hCG, which is produced after implantation by trophoblastic tissue. Levels rise rapidly in early
pregnancy and are detectable in urine and blood.
4 A patient has a negative urine pregnancy test 2 days before an expected menstrual period but
pregnancy is still suspected. What is the best explanation?
A Urine pregnancy tests become positive only after quickening.
B The test may have been performed before urinary hCG reached a detectable level.
C hCG is never present in urine during early pregnancy.
D A negative urine test always excludes pregnancy.
Answer: B. The test may have been performed before urinary hCG reached a detectable level.
Explanation: Testing very early can produce a false-negative result because hCG may not yet be high enough in urine. Repeating
the test after the missed period or obtaining a serum test may clarify the diagnosis.
5 Which laboratory studies are commonly included in the initial prenatal evaluation?
A Only a lipid panel and thyroid ultrasound.
B Only a fasting insulin level.
C Routine CT of the abdomen and pelvis.
D CBC, blood type and Rh status, antibody screen, infectious-disease testing, and urine testing.
Answer: D. CBC, blood type and Rh status, antibody screen, infectious-disease testing, and urine testing.
Explanation: Early prenatal care establishes baseline hematologic status, blood group and antibodies, infection risks, and urinary
findings. Additional tests are individualized according to history and risk.
NR602 * Pregnancy & Prenatal Care * 100 Questions Page 3
, 6 Why is maternal blood type and Rh status determined early in pregnancy?
A To identify patients at risk for Rh alloimmunization and guide anti-D immune globulin use when indicated.
B To determine fetal sex.
C To diagnose gestational diabetes.
D To predict the exact date of labor.
Answer: A. To identify patients at risk for Rh alloimmunization and guide anti-D immune globulin use when
indicated.
Explanation: Knowing Rh status and the antibody screen helps identify unsensitized Rh-negative patients who may benefit from Rh
immune globulin. It also identifies preexisting clinically significant antibodies that require a different management pathway.
7 A pregnant patient is found to be nonimmune to rubella. What is the appropriate plan?
A Give MMR vaccine immediately during pregnancy.
B No vaccination is ever needed.
C Avoid live rubella vaccination during pregnancy and vaccinate postpartum if otherwise appropriate.
D Treat with antibiotics throughout pregnancy.
Answer: C. Avoid live rubella vaccination during pregnancy and vaccinate postpartum if otherwise appropriate.
Explanation: MMR is a live attenuated vaccine and is not administered during pregnancy. Nonimmune patients are typically
counseled to avoid exposure and receive postpartum vaccination.
8 Which vaccine is recommended during each pregnancy, ideally during 27 to 36 weeks of
gestation?
A MMR.
B Tdap.
C Varicella.
D Live attenuated intranasal influenza vaccine.
Answer: B. Tdap.
Explanation: Tdap is recommended during each pregnancy, preferably in the early part of the 27-36 week window, to maximize
maternal antibody transfer and protect the newborn from pertussis.
NR602 * Pregnancy & Prenatal Care * 100 Questions Page 4
