UNIVERSITY OF TEXAS AT ARLINGTON
College of Nursing and Health Innovation
NURS 5432 Family I Midterm Exam
Modules 1–6 Questions with Complete Solutions
Academic Year
EXAM SPECIFICATIONS
Total Questions 175
Sections 8 (Modules 1–6)
Cognitive Level Distribution 15% Recall · 50% Application · 35% Analysis
Question Format Multiple Choice (4 options, single best answer)
Question Style 75% Scenario-based · 25% Direct Knowledge
Aligned With NONPF FNP Core Competencies · USPSTF · ACOG · CDC · ACIP · ADA
Curriculum NURS 5432 Family I Course Syllabus (UTA)
EXAM SECTIONS
1. Advanced Health Assessment & Health Promotion 25 Q
2. Pediatric Growth, Development, & Immunizations 30 Q
3. Women's Health & Reproductive Health 25 Q
4. Men's Health & STI Management 15 Q
5. Geriatrics & Special Populations 15 Q
6. Pharmacology & Prescribing Principles 20 Q
7. Clinical Decision-Making & Differential Diagnosis 25 Q
8. Comprehensive Case Studies & Clinical Scenarios 20 Q
Page 1 | Comprehensive Midterm Examination | 175 Questions
,NURS 5432 Family I Midterm Exam | UTA | Modules 1-6 | 2026/2027
This exam assesses advanced concepts and knowledge for nurse practitioner primary care management of
designated acute, chronic, and complex health problems of individuals and families across the lifespan. Particular
emphasis is placed on pediatric wellness, women's health, men's health, and geriatric concepts and conditions,
consistent with the NURS 5432 Family I curriculum at the University of Texas at Arlington.
Page 2 | Comprehensive Midterm Examination | 175 Questions
,NURS 5432 Family I Midterm Exam | UTA | Modules 1-6 | 2026/2027
Examination Instructions: This comprehensive midterm examination consists of 175 multiple-choice questions
distributed across eight content domains aligned with Modules 1–6 of the NURS 5432 Family I course. Each question
presents four options (A–D) with one correct answer. The correct answer is identified with an asterisk marker
*[CORRECT]*, followed by a rationale referencing NURS 5432 curriculum, UTA FNP standards, NONPF Family Nurse
Practitioner Core Competencies, and current evidence-based primary care guidelines (USPSTF, ACOG, CDC, ACIP,
ADA, GOLD, AHA/ACC).
Section 1: Advanced Health Assessment & Health Promotion (Q1–Q25)
Q1: A 42-year-old female presents for a wellness visit. The NP is utilizing Pender's Health Promotion Model to
guide the encounter. Which construct of Pender's model is most directly related to the patient's perceived
ability to execute a health behavior?
A. Perceived benefits of action
B. Perceived self-efficacy *[CORRECT]*
C. Perceived barriers to action
D. Interpersonal influences
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Perceived self-efficacy is the central construct in Pender's Health Promotion Model that refers to the patient's judgment of their
personal capability to organize and execute a health behavior. While perceived benefits (A) and barriers (C) influence behavior,
self-efficacy specifically addresses competence and confidence. Interpersonal influences (D) are external factors. NURS 5432
curriculum emphasizes biopsychosocial factors motivating health behaviors, with self-efficacy as the linchpin for behavior
change.
Q2: An NP counsels a 55-year-old male smoker who states, "I know smoking is bad, but I'm not ready to quit
right now. Maybe in six months." According to the Transtheoretical Model (TTM), which stage of change is
this patient demonstrating?
A. Precontemplation
B. Contemplation *[CORRECT]*
C. Preparation
D. Action
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The contemplation stage is characterized by the patient's intention to change within the next six months while still acknowledging
ambivalence. Precontemplation (A) involves no intention to change within six months. Preparation (C) involves intention to act
within 30 days with small steps taken. Action (D) involves overt behavioral change within the past six months. NURS 5432
emphasizes that matching interventions to the patient's stage improves outcomes.
Page 3 | Comprehensive Midterm Examination | 175 Questions
, NURS 5432 Family I Midterm Exam | UTA | Modules 1-6 | 2026/2027
Q3: A patient in the preparation stage of the Transtheoretical Model would most likely demonstrate which
behavior?
A. Denying that a health problem exists
B. Gathering information about nicotine replacement therapy
C. Having been smoke-free for three months
D. Setting a quit date for next week and discarding cigarettes *[CORRECT]*
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Setting a quit date and discarding cigarettes is the hallmark of the preparation stage, where the patient intends to take action
within the next 30 days and has begun making small behavioral changes. Denying the problem (A) reflects precontemplation.
Gathering information (B) reflects contemplation. Being smoke-free for three months (C) reflects the action stage. NURS 5432
curriculum stresses that preparation-stage patients benefit most from actionable, structured plans.
Q4: The Theory of Planned Behavior identifies which construct as the strongest predictor of actual behavior?
A. Attitude toward the behavior
B. Subjective norms
C. Behavioral intention *[CORRECT]*
D. Perceived behavioral control
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Behavioral intention is the most proximal predictor of actual behavior in the Theory of Planned Behavior. Attitude (A), subjective
norms (B), and perceived behavioral control (D) all shape intention, which then translates to behavior. NURS 5432 highlights
this model to teach FNP students that assessing a patient's intention—rather than only their attitudes—is the more reliable gauge
of whether lifestyle change will occur.
Q5: During a clinical encounter, an NP uses the F-I-F-E framework to explore a patient's illness experience.
Which question aligns with the 'Function' component?
A. "What do you think is causing your problem?"
B. "How has this affected your daily activities?" *[CORRECT]*
C. "What are you worried might happen?"
D. "What do you expect from this visit?"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The 'Function' component of the F-I-FE framework addresses how the illness affects the patient's daily life, work, and activities.
Asking what is causing the problem (A) corresponds to 'Ideas.' Asking about worries (C) corresponds to 'Feelings.' Asking about
expectations (D) corresponds to 'Expectations.' NURS 5432 teaches this framework as a patient-centered communication tool
that uncovers the illness narrative beyond the disease.
Page 4 | Comprehensive Midterm Examination | 175 Questions
College of Nursing and Health Innovation
NURS 5432 Family I Midterm Exam
Modules 1–6 Questions with Complete Solutions
Academic Year
EXAM SPECIFICATIONS
Total Questions 175
Sections 8 (Modules 1–6)
Cognitive Level Distribution 15% Recall · 50% Application · 35% Analysis
Question Format Multiple Choice (4 options, single best answer)
Question Style 75% Scenario-based · 25% Direct Knowledge
Aligned With NONPF FNP Core Competencies · USPSTF · ACOG · CDC · ACIP · ADA
Curriculum NURS 5432 Family I Course Syllabus (UTA)
EXAM SECTIONS
1. Advanced Health Assessment & Health Promotion 25 Q
2. Pediatric Growth, Development, & Immunizations 30 Q
3. Women's Health & Reproductive Health 25 Q
4. Men's Health & STI Management 15 Q
5. Geriatrics & Special Populations 15 Q
6. Pharmacology & Prescribing Principles 20 Q
7. Clinical Decision-Making & Differential Diagnosis 25 Q
8. Comprehensive Case Studies & Clinical Scenarios 20 Q
Page 1 | Comprehensive Midterm Examination | 175 Questions
,NURS 5432 Family I Midterm Exam | UTA | Modules 1-6 | 2026/2027
This exam assesses advanced concepts and knowledge for nurse practitioner primary care management of
designated acute, chronic, and complex health problems of individuals and families across the lifespan. Particular
emphasis is placed on pediatric wellness, women's health, men's health, and geriatric concepts and conditions,
consistent with the NURS 5432 Family I curriculum at the University of Texas at Arlington.
Page 2 | Comprehensive Midterm Examination | 175 Questions
,NURS 5432 Family I Midterm Exam | UTA | Modules 1-6 | 2026/2027
Examination Instructions: This comprehensive midterm examination consists of 175 multiple-choice questions
distributed across eight content domains aligned with Modules 1–6 of the NURS 5432 Family I course. Each question
presents four options (A–D) with one correct answer. The correct answer is identified with an asterisk marker
*[CORRECT]*, followed by a rationale referencing NURS 5432 curriculum, UTA FNP standards, NONPF Family Nurse
Practitioner Core Competencies, and current evidence-based primary care guidelines (USPSTF, ACOG, CDC, ACIP,
ADA, GOLD, AHA/ACC).
Section 1: Advanced Health Assessment & Health Promotion (Q1–Q25)
Q1: A 42-year-old female presents for a wellness visit. The NP is utilizing Pender's Health Promotion Model to
guide the encounter. Which construct of Pender's model is most directly related to the patient's perceived
ability to execute a health behavior?
A. Perceived benefits of action
B. Perceived self-efficacy *[CORRECT]*
C. Perceived barriers to action
D. Interpersonal influences
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Perceived self-efficacy is the central construct in Pender's Health Promotion Model that refers to the patient's judgment of their
personal capability to organize and execute a health behavior. While perceived benefits (A) and barriers (C) influence behavior,
self-efficacy specifically addresses competence and confidence. Interpersonal influences (D) are external factors. NURS 5432
curriculum emphasizes biopsychosocial factors motivating health behaviors, with self-efficacy as the linchpin for behavior
change.
Q2: An NP counsels a 55-year-old male smoker who states, "I know smoking is bad, but I'm not ready to quit
right now. Maybe in six months." According to the Transtheoretical Model (TTM), which stage of change is
this patient demonstrating?
A. Precontemplation
B. Contemplation *[CORRECT]*
C. Preparation
D. Action
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The contemplation stage is characterized by the patient's intention to change within the next six months while still acknowledging
ambivalence. Precontemplation (A) involves no intention to change within six months. Preparation (C) involves intention to act
within 30 days with small steps taken. Action (D) involves overt behavioral change within the past six months. NURS 5432
emphasizes that matching interventions to the patient's stage improves outcomes.
Page 3 | Comprehensive Midterm Examination | 175 Questions
, NURS 5432 Family I Midterm Exam | UTA | Modules 1-6 | 2026/2027
Q3: A patient in the preparation stage of the Transtheoretical Model would most likely demonstrate which
behavior?
A. Denying that a health problem exists
B. Gathering information about nicotine replacement therapy
C. Having been smoke-free for three months
D. Setting a quit date for next week and discarding cigarettes *[CORRECT]*
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Setting a quit date and discarding cigarettes is the hallmark of the preparation stage, where the patient intends to take action
within the next 30 days and has begun making small behavioral changes. Denying the problem (A) reflects precontemplation.
Gathering information (B) reflects contemplation. Being smoke-free for three months (C) reflects the action stage. NURS 5432
curriculum stresses that preparation-stage patients benefit most from actionable, structured plans.
Q4: The Theory of Planned Behavior identifies which construct as the strongest predictor of actual behavior?
A. Attitude toward the behavior
B. Subjective norms
C. Behavioral intention *[CORRECT]*
D. Perceived behavioral control
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Behavioral intention is the most proximal predictor of actual behavior in the Theory of Planned Behavior. Attitude (A), subjective
norms (B), and perceived behavioral control (D) all shape intention, which then translates to behavior. NURS 5432 highlights
this model to teach FNP students that assessing a patient's intention—rather than only their attitudes—is the more reliable gauge
of whether lifestyle change will occur.
Q5: During a clinical encounter, an NP uses the F-I-F-E framework to explore a patient's illness experience.
Which question aligns with the 'Function' component?
A. "What do you think is causing your problem?"
B. "How has this affected your daily activities?" *[CORRECT]*
C. "What are you worried might happen?"
D. "What do you expect from this visit?"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The 'Function' component of the F-I-FE framework addresses how the illness affects the patient's daily life, work, and activities.
Asking what is causing the problem (A) corresponds to 'Ideas.' Asking about worries (C) corresponds to 'Feelings.' Asking about
expectations (D) corresponds to 'Expectations.' NURS 5432 teaches this framework as a patient-centered communication tool
that uncovers the illness narrative beyond the disease.
Page 4 | Comprehensive Midterm Examination | 175 Questions
