AND ANSWERS WITH RATIONALE| UPDATE
RATED A+ | PACE UNIVERSITY 2026/2027
98 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
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NURS 681| QUIZ 7 PHARM ENDO| QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH RATIONALE| UPDATE RATED A+ |
PACE UNIVERSITY 2026/2027. It contains 98 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam
content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that
explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
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Review Summary 98 Questions
Foundations - Application - NURS 681 7 Pharm ENDO AND WITH Rationale Update Rated A PACE
University 2026/2027 NURS 681 7 Pharm ENDO AND WITH Rationale Update Rated A PACE University
2026/2027 University
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Diabetes Mellitus 1-17 Diabetes, Insulin, Appropriate, Metformin, Taking
Management
Thyroid Disorders AND 18-34 Diabetes, Disease, Metformin, Insulin, Started
Pharmacotherapy
Adrenal Insufficiency AND 35-51 Diabetes, Effect, Mechanism, Chronic, Prescribed
Corticosteroids
Pituitary Disorders AND 52-68 Diabetes, Appropriate, Insulin, Metformin, Explains
Hormone Replacement
Antidiabetic Agents Insulin 69-85 Diabetes, Explains, Appropriate, Adverse Effect, Long-term
AND ORAL Hypoglycemics
Thyroid Hormone AND 86-98 Diabetes, Metformin, Prescribed, Effect, Develops
Antithyroid Drugs
TOTAL 98 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Diabetes Mellitus Management
Q1.
A patient on metformin for type 2 diabetes is scheduled for a contrast-enhanced CT.
Which instruction is most appropriate?
A. Continue metformin and monitor renal B. Hold metformin at the time of the scan
function after the scan. and resume 48 hours later if renal function is
normal.
C. Discontinue metformin permanently and D. Increase metformin dose to compensate
switch to insulin. for contrast-induced renal stress.
Correct: B - Hold metformin at the time of the scan and resume 48 hours later if renal
function is normal.
Rationale:Current guidelines recommend withholding metformin at or before the time of
iodinated contrast exposure in patients with eGFR 30-60 or at risk for contrast-induced
nephropathy, and resuming 48 hours after if renal function is stable. Continuing metformin (A)
risks lactic acidosis if renal function deteriorates. Permanent discontinuation (C) is
unnecessary; switching to insulin (D) is not indicated and increasing the dose (D) is
dangerous.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Continuing metformin during contrast exposure increases the risk of lactic acidosis if renal
function declines.
C. Metformin can be safely resumed after renal function is confirmed stable.
D. Increasing metformin dose amplifies the risk of lactic acidosis without any benefit.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th ed., Ch. 48; ADA Standards of
Care 2026.
Q2.
A patient with adrenal insufficiency is taking hydrocortisone. Which adverse effect
requires the most careful monitoring during long-term therapy?
A. Weight gain B. Osteoporosis
C. Hyperglycemia D. Peptic ulcer disease
Correct: B - Osteoporosis
Rationale:Long-term glucocorticoid therapy is a leading cause of osteoporosis, and bone
density should be monitored and prophylaxis considered. Weight gain, hyperglycemia, and
peptic ulcer disease are also possible but osteoporosis is the most insidious and clinically
significant long-term complication that requires proactive monitoring (e.g., DXA scan).
Page 3
, Section A - Diabetes Mellitus Management
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Weight gain is common but not the most critical long-term adverse effect requiring monitoring.
C. Hyperglycemia is important but can be managed and is not the primary focus of long-term surveillance.
D. Peptic ulcer disease is a concern but less common than osteoporosis with current prophylactic practices.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th ed., Ch. 42; AACE guidelines.
Q3.
A patient is prescribed levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. Which medication interaction is
the most clinically significant when administered concurrently?
A. Calcium carbonate B. Warfarin
C. Oral contraceptives D. Acetaminophen
Correct: A - Calcium carbonate
Rationale:Calcium carbonate chelates levothyroxine in the gastrointestinal tract, reducing its
absorption and causing a clinically significant decrease in thyroid hormone levels. Warfarin
interaction is also important (increased anticoagulant effect), but the question asks for the
most significant concurrent medication interaction; calcium is a common OTC that can lead to
inadequate thyroid replacement. Oral contraceptives may increase thyroid-binding globulin,
but the interaction is less direct. Acetaminophen has no known interaction.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Warfarin interaction is significant but less common and requires monitoring INR, not a direct
absorption issue.
C. Oral contraceptives affect thyroid-binding globulin but not as directly as calcium chelation.
D. Acetaminophen has no known interaction with levothyroxine.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th ed., Ch. 45; FDA labeling.
Q4.
A patient with type 2 diabetes has an eGFR of 25 mL/min/1.73m². Which antidiabetic
medication is safest to continue?
A. Metformin B. Sitagliptin
C. Glyburide D. Insulin glargine
Correct: D - Insulin glargine
Rationale:Insulin glargine is safe in advanced chronic kidney disease (CKD) because it does
not require renal clearance, though dose adjustment may be needed. Metformin is
contraindicated when eGFR <30. Sitagliptin requires dose adjustment and is not
recommended in this stage. Glyburide is contraindicated due to increased risk of
hypoglycemia from accumulation of active metabolites.
Why the other answers are wrong:
Page 4