PN 3006 FINAL EXAM -LATEST UPDATE
2026|2027|A COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW OF
200 PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS
AND RATIONALES|QUARANTEED PASS!!!
Introduction
This comprehensive practice question bank contains 200 multiple-choice
questions designed to help you prepare for the PN 3006 Final Exam. The questions
cover all major content areas including Fundamentals of Nursing, Medical-Surgical
Nursing, Pharmacology, Maternal-Newborn Care, Pediatric Nursing, Mental
Health Nursing, Fluid and Electrolytes, and Wound Care. Each question is
followed by the correct answer and a detailed rationale to enhance your
understanding of the underlying concepts. Use this resource as a study tool to
identify knowledge gaps and reinforce your learning. All questions are unique
and non-duplicated.
SECTION 1: FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING (Questions 1-35)
1. A patient is prescribed a clear liquid diet. Which item is appropriate to
include on the meal tray?
• A. Orange juice with pulp
• B. Cream of chicken soup
• C. Apple juice
• D. Vanilla pudding
Answer: C
Rationale: A clear liquid diet includes liquids that are transparent at room
temperature, such as apple juice, broth, gelatin, and clear sodas. Orange juice with
,pulp, cream soups, and pudding are not clear liquids and would be included in full
liquid or soft diets.
2. When performing hand hygiene using soap and water, how long should the
nurse rub their hands together?
• A. At least 5 seconds
• B. At least 10 seconds
• C. At least 15 seconds
• D. At least 20 seconds
Answer: D
Rationale: The CDC recommends rubbing hands together for at least 20 seconds
when using soap and water to ensure adequate removal of pathogens. This duration
allows the soap to create sufficient lather and friction to remove microorganisms
effectively.
3. Which patient position is most appropriate for assessing the dorsal
recumbent position?
• A. Lying on the back with legs bent and feet flat on the bed
• B. Lying on the abdomen with head turned to the side
• C. Lying on the side with top leg bent over the bottom leg
• D. Sitting upright at a 90-degree angle
Answer: A
Rationale: The dorsal recumbent position involves the patient lying on their back
with knees flexed and feet flat on the bed. This position is commonly used for
abdominal assessments and vaginal examinations. Position B describes the prone
position, C describes Sims' position, and D describes the Fowler's position.
,4. A nurse is preparing to apply restraints to a confused patient. Which action
is most appropriate?
• A. Apply restraints tightly to prevent movement
• B. Tie restraints to the bed frame using a quick-release knot
• C. Place restraints on for 4 hours before reassessing
• D. Obtain a PRN order for restraints
Answer: B
Rationale: Restraints must be tied to the bed frame (not the side rails) using a
quick-release knot that can be easily undone in an emergency. Restraints should be
applied with enough slack to allow for 1-2 finger widths of space, assessed every
15-30 minutes, and require a specific physician order, not PRN.
5. What is the normal range for adult oral temperature?
• A. 35.0°C - 36.0°C
• B. 36.0°C - 37.5°C
• C. 36.5°C - 37.5°C
• D. 37.5°C - 38.5°C
Answer: C
Rationale: The normal oral temperature range for adults is 36.5°C to 37.5°C
(97.7°F to 99.5°F). Temperatures below 36.0°C may indicate hypothermia, while
temperatures above 37.5°C suggest fever.
6. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for a patient with a Stage II
pressure ulcer?
• A. Apply dry gauze dressing
• B. Apply transparent film dressing
• C. Apply hydrocolloid dressing
, • D. Apply wet-to-dry dressing
Answer: C
Rationale: Stage II pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with
exposed dermis. Hydrocolloid dressings maintain a moist wound environment,
promote autolytic debridement, and protect the wound from contamination. Dry
gauze can adhere to the wound and cause further tissue damage.
7. When measuring a patient's blood pressure, the nurse notes the Korotkoff
sounds disappear at 78 mmHg and reappear at 82 mmHg. What should the
nurse document?
• A. 82/78 mmHg
• B. 78/82 mmHg
• C. 82 mmHg systolic only
• D. 80 mmHg as the diastolic reading
Answer: A
Rationale: When there is an auscultatory gap (disappearance and reappearance of
sounds), the systolic pressure should be recorded at the first sound heard, and the
diastolic pressure at the point where sounds disappear permanently. This
phenomenon is seen in conditions like hypertension and aortic stenosis.
8. Which statement by a patient indicates understanding of fall prevention
strategies?
• A. "I can leave my bed in the lowest position for easier access."
• B. "I will use the call light when I need to get up."
• C. "I should keep my room dark to help me sleep better."
• D. "I can grab the IV pole for support when walking."
Answer: B
Rationale: Using the call light ensures that staff can assist the patient safely with
2026|2027|A COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW OF
200 PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS
AND RATIONALES|QUARANTEED PASS!!!
Introduction
This comprehensive practice question bank contains 200 multiple-choice
questions designed to help you prepare for the PN 3006 Final Exam. The questions
cover all major content areas including Fundamentals of Nursing, Medical-Surgical
Nursing, Pharmacology, Maternal-Newborn Care, Pediatric Nursing, Mental
Health Nursing, Fluid and Electrolytes, and Wound Care. Each question is
followed by the correct answer and a detailed rationale to enhance your
understanding of the underlying concepts. Use this resource as a study tool to
identify knowledge gaps and reinforce your learning. All questions are unique
and non-duplicated.
SECTION 1: FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING (Questions 1-35)
1. A patient is prescribed a clear liquid diet. Which item is appropriate to
include on the meal tray?
• A. Orange juice with pulp
• B. Cream of chicken soup
• C. Apple juice
• D. Vanilla pudding
Answer: C
Rationale: A clear liquid diet includes liquids that are transparent at room
temperature, such as apple juice, broth, gelatin, and clear sodas. Orange juice with
,pulp, cream soups, and pudding are not clear liquids and would be included in full
liquid or soft diets.
2. When performing hand hygiene using soap and water, how long should the
nurse rub their hands together?
• A. At least 5 seconds
• B. At least 10 seconds
• C. At least 15 seconds
• D. At least 20 seconds
Answer: D
Rationale: The CDC recommends rubbing hands together for at least 20 seconds
when using soap and water to ensure adequate removal of pathogens. This duration
allows the soap to create sufficient lather and friction to remove microorganisms
effectively.
3. Which patient position is most appropriate for assessing the dorsal
recumbent position?
• A. Lying on the back with legs bent and feet flat on the bed
• B. Lying on the abdomen with head turned to the side
• C. Lying on the side with top leg bent over the bottom leg
• D. Sitting upright at a 90-degree angle
Answer: A
Rationale: The dorsal recumbent position involves the patient lying on their back
with knees flexed and feet flat on the bed. This position is commonly used for
abdominal assessments and vaginal examinations. Position B describes the prone
position, C describes Sims' position, and D describes the Fowler's position.
,4. A nurse is preparing to apply restraints to a confused patient. Which action
is most appropriate?
• A. Apply restraints tightly to prevent movement
• B. Tie restraints to the bed frame using a quick-release knot
• C. Place restraints on for 4 hours before reassessing
• D. Obtain a PRN order for restraints
Answer: B
Rationale: Restraints must be tied to the bed frame (not the side rails) using a
quick-release knot that can be easily undone in an emergency. Restraints should be
applied with enough slack to allow for 1-2 finger widths of space, assessed every
15-30 minutes, and require a specific physician order, not PRN.
5. What is the normal range for adult oral temperature?
• A. 35.0°C - 36.0°C
• B. 36.0°C - 37.5°C
• C. 36.5°C - 37.5°C
• D. 37.5°C - 38.5°C
Answer: C
Rationale: The normal oral temperature range for adults is 36.5°C to 37.5°C
(97.7°F to 99.5°F). Temperatures below 36.0°C may indicate hypothermia, while
temperatures above 37.5°C suggest fever.
6. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for a patient with a Stage II
pressure ulcer?
• A. Apply dry gauze dressing
• B. Apply transparent film dressing
• C. Apply hydrocolloid dressing
, • D. Apply wet-to-dry dressing
Answer: C
Rationale: Stage II pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with
exposed dermis. Hydrocolloid dressings maintain a moist wound environment,
promote autolytic debridement, and protect the wound from contamination. Dry
gauze can adhere to the wound and cause further tissue damage.
7. When measuring a patient's blood pressure, the nurse notes the Korotkoff
sounds disappear at 78 mmHg and reappear at 82 mmHg. What should the
nurse document?
• A. 82/78 mmHg
• B. 78/82 mmHg
• C. 82 mmHg systolic only
• D. 80 mmHg as the diastolic reading
Answer: A
Rationale: When there is an auscultatory gap (disappearance and reappearance of
sounds), the systolic pressure should be recorded at the first sound heard, and the
diastolic pressure at the point where sounds disappear permanently. This
phenomenon is seen in conditions like hypertension and aortic stenosis.
8. Which statement by a patient indicates understanding of fall prevention
strategies?
• A. "I can leave my bed in the lowest position for easier access."
• B. "I will use the call light when I need to get up."
• C. "I should keep my room dark to help me sleep better."
• D. "I can grab the IV pole for support when walking."
Answer: B
Rationale: Using the call light ensures that staff can assist the patient safely with
