BLS Final Exam
2026/2027 Actual Exam — 25 Verified Questions and Correct Answers
Basic Life Support Certification — Final Assessment
Aligned with AHA Basic Life Support Course Objectives and Provider Manual
Instructions: This final assessment contains 25 multiple-choice items across five domains reflecting AHA BLS course
objectives: high-quality CPR, AED use and defibrillation, choking and airway management, team resuscitation and special
circumstances, and BLS algorithm application. Each item has one best answer. Rationales include AHA-specific reasoning
— why the correct option is best and why each distractor reflects a common BLS exam pitfall. Verify current AHA BLS
guidelines and course materials prior to clinical application; this assessment is for educational preparation.
Section 1: High-Quality CPR and Basic Life Support
Adult, Child, & Infant BLS; High-Quality CPR; & Team Dynamics (Q1–Q10)
Q1: A 54-year-old man collapses in a shopping mall. A bystander finds him unresponsive and not
breathing normally. Which action should the rescuer perform FIRST according to the 2026/2027 AHA
BLS sequence for a lone rescuer?
A. Open the airway and give 2 rescue breaths before any compressions.
B. Check for response and breathing simultaneously, then activate emergency response and get an
AED before starting compressions if no pulse/breathing. [CORRECT]
C. Begin chest compressions immediately and delay activating emergency response until CPR has been
performed for 2 minutes.
D. Wait for the AED to arrive before touching the patient.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The AHA BLS sequence for a lone rescuer outside a hospital is: verify scene safety, check responsiveness and breathing
simultaneously (no more than 10 seconds), activate emergency response and retrieve an AED, then check pulse (no more
than 10 seconds) and begin compressions if no pulse/abnormal breathing. Giving breaths first (A) delays compressions and
defibrillation. Compressing before activating emergency response (C) delays the arrival of the AED and advanced help in a
witnessed arrest. Waiting without intervention (D) is never correct.
Q2: Which set of parameters defines HIGH-QUALITY chest compressions for an ADULT victim per
current AHA BLS guidance?
A. Rate 100–120 compressions/min, depth at least 2 inches (5 cm), allow full chest recoil, minimize
interruptions (<10 seconds), avoid excessive ventilation. [CORRECT]
B. Rate 80–100/min, depth 1 inch (2.5 cm), partial recoil, ventilate 20 breaths/min.
C. Rate 120–140/min, depth 3 inches (7.5 cm), full recoil, ventilate 12–20 breaths/min.
D. Rate 100/min exactly, depth 1.5 inches (4 cm), full recoil, hyperventilate to increase oxygenation.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
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, BLS Final Exam — 2026/2027 Edition
AHA defines high-quality CPR for adults as: rate 100–120/min, depth at least 2 inches (5 cm) but no more than 2.4 inches
(6 cm), full chest recoil, minimize interruptions (<10 seconds), and avoid excessive ventilation. The rate ceiling (120)
prevents the too-fast compressions that reduce filling; the floor (100) ensures adequate rate. Depth under 2 inches (B) is
inadequate; depth over 2.4 inches risks injury without added benefit. Hyperventilation (D) increases intrathoracic pressure
and decreases coronary/cerebral perfusion.
Q3: A rescuer observes brief, irregular, gasping respirations in an unresponsive adult who was found
down 30 seconds ago. What is the rescuer's MOST appropriate interpretation and action?
A. Treat the gasps as effective breathing; monitor for 1 minute before deciding.
B. Recognize agonal gasps as a sign of cardiac arrest; check pulse (no more than 10 seconds) and
begin CPR if no pulse, even though gasping is occurring. [CORRECT]
C. Assume seizure activity and roll the patient into the recovery position.
D. Provide rescue breaths only since the patient is breathing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Agonal gasps are NOT effective breathing. They are common in the first minutes after cardiac arrest and reflect brainstem
ischemia, not normal respiration. The rescuer should check pulse (no more than 10 seconds) and, if no pulse or uncertain,
begin CPR. Waiting (A) and rescue breaths only (D) delay compressions. Assuming seizure (C) misses the cardiac arrest.
Agonal gasps typically stop within a few minutes; CPR must be initiated even while gasping persists.
Q4: A 6-year-old child is found unresponsive and not breathing after being pulled from a pool. There is
no pulse. The rescuer is alone. What is the correct sequence?
A. Give 2 minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30:2) before leaving to activate emergency response
and get an AED, because this is a likely asphyxial arrest. [CORRECT]
B. Leave the child immediately to call 911 before any CPR, as in an adult witnessed collapse.
C. Begin rescue breaths only for 5 minutes before compressions.
D. Perform abdominal thrusts because drowning suggests aspiration.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
For a lone rescuer with an unwitnessed pediatric arrest or likely asphyxial/respiratory arrest (e.g., drowning), the AHA
recommends giving 2 minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30:2) before leaving to activate emergency response and retrieve
an AED. The pediatric Chain of Survival prioritizes immediate oxygenation because most pediatric arrests are respiratory in
origin. Leaving immediately (B) delays critical CPR. Breaths alone (C) and abdominal thrusts (D) are inappropriate
interventions.
Q5: What is the correct chest compression DEPTH for an INFANT (under 1 year) during CPR by a lone
healthcare provider?
A. At least 1.5 inches (4 cm) — approximately one-third the anteroposterior chest depth.
[CORRECT]
B. At least 2 inches (5 cm) — same as adult.
C. At least 3 inches (7.5 cm) — deeper than adult to ensure circulation.
D. No compressions; use only rescue breaths for infants.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
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