NRSG 2350 FINAL EXAM/NRSG 2350 FINAL ACTUAL
PRACTICE EXAM 2026-2027 COMPLETE ACCURATE
EXAM REAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES (100% RELIABLE
ANSWERS) CURRENTLY UPDATED VERSION EDITION
2026 |GUARANTEED PASS A+ (BRAND NEW!!) |INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
Question 1
A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed epoetin alfa. Which laboratory
value should the nurse monitor most closely to determine the effectiveness of this
therapy?
A. Serum potassium
B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
C. White blood cell count
D. Serum creatinine
ANSWER: B
Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis in the bone marrow. The primary goal is to
increase red blood cell mass, reflected by rising hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
Monitoring these values directly measures therapeutic response, whereas
potassium and creatinine reflect renal function and electrolyte balance, not
erythropoietic effect.
,Question 2
A patient receiving IV vancomycin reports flushing, pruritus, and a macular rash
on the neck and chest. The infusion was started 10 minutes ago. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A. Slow the infusion rate and document the finding.
B. Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
C. Administer diphenhydramine as a stat order.
D. Continue the infusion and monitor vital signs.
ANSWER: B
These symptoms are classic for Red Man Syndrome, a hypersensitivity reaction
related to rapid vancomycin infusion. The priority is to stop the infusion
immediately to prevent progression, then notify the provider. Slowing the rate may
be appropriate for mild cases, but the acute onset warrants cessation first.
Question 3
Which assessment finding in a client with heart failure receiving furosemide
requires immediate intervention?
A. Serum potassium of 3.8 mEq/L
B. Weight loss of 2 kg in 24 hours
C. Orthostatic blood pressure drop of 20 mmHg
D. Urinary output of 200 mL in 4 hours
ANSWER: D
,A urinary output of 200 mL over 4 hours equates to less than 30 mL/hour, which is
oliguria. This may indicate inadequate renal perfusion or worsening heart failure,
requiring immediate evaluation. A 2-kg loss in 24 hours is therapeutic for fluid
removal; potassium of 3.8 is borderline but not emergent; orthostatic hypotension
is an expected side effect.
Question 4
The nurse is teaching a client with type 2 diabetes about self-management. Which
statement indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I will check my feet daily for any cuts or blisters.”
B. “I can skip my metformin if my blood glucose is normal.”
C. “I should eat meals at regular times each day.”
D. “I will rotate my insulin injection sites weekly.”
ANSWER: B
Metformin is a cornerstone of glucose control and should be taken consistently, not
skipped based on a single normal reading. Skipping doses can lead to
hyperglycemia and loss of glycemic control. The other statements reflect correct
self-care practices.
Question 5
A client with acute respiratory distress syndrome is on mechanical ventilation with
positive end-expiratory pressure. Which finding indicates a complication of this
therapy?
A. PaO2 of 88 mmHg
B. Tidal volume of 500 mL
C. Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg
, D. Central venous pressure of 8 mmHg
ANSWER: C
Positive end-expiratory pressure increases intrathoracic pressure, which can reduce
venous return and cardiac output, leading to hypotension. A blood pressure of
90/60 suggests hemodynamic compromise. The PaO2 and tidal volume are
acceptable, and CVP of 8 is within normal range.
Question 6
Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with the use of loop
diuretics?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
ANSWER: C
Loop diuretics inhibit sodium-potassium-chloride reabsorption in the thick
ascending limb, leading to increased potassium excretion. Hypokalemia is a
frequent adverse effect. Hyponatremia can occur but is less consistent;
hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia are not typical.
Question 7
A postoperative patient has a nasogastric tube set to low intermittent suction. The
nurse notes that the gastric output is 800 mL over 8 hours. What acid-base
imbalance is the patient at risk for?
A. Metabolic acidosis
PRACTICE EXAM 2026-2027 COMPLETE ACCURATE
EXAM REAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES (100% RELIABLE
ANSWERS) CURRENTLY UPDATED VERSION EDITION
2026 |GUARANTEED PASS A+ (BRAND NEW!!) |INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
Question 1
A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed epoetin alfa. Which laboratory
value should the nurse monitor most closely to determine the effectiveness of this
therapy?
A. Serum potassium
B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
C. White blood cell count
D. Serum creatinine
ANSWER: B
Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis in the bone marrow. The primary goal is to
increase red blood cell mass, reflected by rising hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
Monitoring these values directly measures therapeutic response, whereas
potassium and creatinine reflect renal function and electrolyte balance, not
erythropoietic effect.
,Question 2
A patient receiving IV vancomycin reports flushing, pruritus, and a macular rash
on the neck and chest. The infusion was started 10 minutes ago. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A. Slow the infusion rate and document the finding.
B. Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
C. Administer diphenhydramine as a stat order.
D. Continue the infusion and monitor vital signs.
ANSWER: B
These symptoms are classic for Red Man Syndrome, a hypersensitivity reaction
related to rapid vancomycin infusion. The priority is to stop the infusion
immediately to prevent progression, then notify the provider. Slowing the rate may
be appropriate for mild cases, but the acute onset warrants cessation first.
Question 3
Which assessment finding in a client with heart failure receiving furosemide
requires immediate intervention?
A. Serum potassium of 3.8 mEq/L
B. Weight loss of 2 kg in 24 hours
C. Orthostatic blood pressure drop of 20 mmHg
D. Urinary output of 200 mL in 4 hours
ANSWER: D
,A urinary output of 200 mL over 4 hours equates to less than 30 mL/hour, which is
oliguria. This may indicate inadequate renal perfusion or worsening heart failure,
requiring immediate evaluation. A 2-kg loss in 24 hours is therapeutic for fluid
removal; potassium of 3.8 is borderline but not emergent; orthostatic hypotension
is an expected side effect.
Question 4
The nurse is teaching a client with type 2 diabetes about self-management. Which
statement indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I will check my feet daily for any cuts or blisters.”
B. “I can skip my metformin if my blood glucose is normal.”
C. “I should eat meals at regular times each day.”
D. “I will rotate my insulin injection sites weekly.”
ANSWER: B
Metformin is a cornerstone of glucose control and should be taken consistently, not
skipped based on a single normal reading. Skipping doses can lead to
hyperglycemia and loss of glycemic control. The other statements reflect correct
self-care practices.
Question 5
A client with acute respiratory distress syndrome is on mechanical ventilation with
positive end-expiratory pressure. Which finding indicates a complication of this
therapy?
A. PaO2 of 88 mmHg
B. Tidal volume of 500 mL
C. Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg
, D. Central venous pressure of 8 mmHg
ANSWER: C
Positive end-expiratory pressure increases intrathoracic pressure, which can reduce
venous return and cardiac output, leading to hypotension. A blood pressure of
90/60 suggests hemodynamic compromise. The PaO2 and tidal volume are
acceptable, and CVP of 8 is within normal range.
Question 6
Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with the use of loop
diuretics?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
ANSWER: C
Loop diuretics inhibit sodium-potassium-chloride reabsorption in the thick
ascending limb, leading to increased potassium excretion. Hypokalemia is a
frequent adverse effect. Hyponatremia can occur but is less consistent;
hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia are not typical.
Question 7
A postoperative patient has a nasogastric tube set to low intermittent suction. The
nurse notes that the gastric output is 800 mL over 8 hours. What acid-base
imbalance is the patient at risk for?
A. Metabolic acidosis
