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Examen

NURS 6501 AdvANced PAthoPhySiology – AcAdemic yeAR 2026/2027 – midteRm comPReheNSive exAmiNAtioN with veRified QUeStioNS ANd coRRect ANSweR RAtioNAleS | | jUSt ReleASed .

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NURS 6501 AdvANced PAthoPhySiology – AcAdemic yeAR 2026/2027 – midteRm comPReheNSive exAmiNAtioN with veRified QUeStioNS ANd coRRect ANSweR RAtioNAleS | | jUSt ReleASed .

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, NURS 6501 AdvANced PAthoPhySiology – AcAdemic yeAR
2026/2027 – midteRm comPReheNSive exAmiNAtioN with veRified
QUeStioNS ANd coRRect ANSweR RAtioNAleS | | jUSt ReleASed .



This comprehensive practice examination covers advanced pathophysiology concepts essential
for advanced practice nursing. The exam integrates cellular biology, genetics, immunology, and
systemic pathophysiology across the lifespan. Questions are designed to strengthen clinical
reasoning, diagnostic thinking, and evidence-based practice.


DOMAIN I: CELLULAR AND GENETIC PATHOPHYSIOLOGY (Questions 1–20)


Question 1
A patient with a family history of autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)
presents with flank pain, hematuria, and hypertension. The nurse practitioner understands that
ADPKD is caused by mutations in which of the following genes?
A. APC gene
B. BRCA1/BRCA2 genes
C. PKD1 and PKD2 genes
D. CFTR gene

ANSweR: C. PKD1 and PKD2 genes

RAtioNAle: Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is caused by mutations in
PKD1 (chromosome 16) or PKD2 (chromosome 4). PKD1 mutations cause more severe
disease. APC gene (A) mutations cause familial adenomatous polyposis. BRCA1/BRCA2 (B)
mutations cause hereditary breast and ovarian cancer. CFTR (D) mutations cause cystic
fibrosis.


Question 2
A patient with chronic kidney disease develops anemia. The nurse practitioner understands that
the primary pathophysiological mechanism for this anemia is:
A. Iron deficiency from poor dietary intake
B. Decreased erythropoietin production by the kidneys
C. Vitamin B12 deficiency
D. Folate deficiency

ANSweR: B. Decreased erythropoietin production by the kidneys

,RAtioNAle: Anemia of chronic kidney disease is primarily due to decreased production of
erythropoietin by the damaged kidneys. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production in
the bone marrow. Iron deficiency (A), vitamin B12 deficiency (C), and folate deficiency (D) can
also cause anemia but are not the primary mechanism in CKD.


Question 3
Which of the following cellular adaptations is characterized by a decrease in cell size and
function?
A. Hypertrophy
B. Hyperplasia
C. Atrophy
D. Metaplasia

ANSweR: C. Atrophy

RAtioNAle: Atrophy is a decrease in cell size and function. It can be physiologic (e.g., thymus
gland with age) or pathologic (e.g., disuse atrophy of muscle). Hypertrophy (A) is an increase in
cell size. Hyperplasia (B) is an increase in cell number. Metaplasia (D) is the replacement of one
differentiated cell type with another.


Question 4
A patient with a history of smoking presents with a chronic cough and weight loss. Chest X-ray
reveals a lung mass. The nurse practitioner recognizes that tobacco smoke acts as a
carcinogen by:
A. Directly damaging DNA
B. Causing immune suppression
C. Inducing metaplasia
D. All of the above

ANSweR: D. All of the above

RAtioNAle: Tobacco smoke contains multiple carcinogens that cause cancer through various
mechanisms: directly damaging DNA (A), causing immune suppression (B), and inducing
metaplasia (C) (squamous metaplasia in the airways). All of these mechanisms contribute to the
development of lung cancer in smokers.


Question 5
A patient with a suspected autoimmune disorder is being evaluated. Which of the following is an
example of a Type II hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Tuberculin skin test reaction

, ANSweR: B. Hemolytic anemia

RAtioNAle: Type II hypersensitivity reactions are antibody-mediated cytotoxic reactions.
Hemolytic anemia is a Type II reaction where antibodies target red blood cells. Anaphylaxis (A)
is Type I (IgE-mediated). Rheumatoid arthritis (C) is Type III (immune complex-mediated). The
tuberculin skin test reaction (D) is Type IV (cell-mediated).


Question 6
A patient with a family history of breast and ovarian cancer undergoes genetic testing. The
nurse practitioner understands that mutations in which genes are most associated with
hereditary breast and ovarian cancer?
A. APC and p53
B. BRCA1 and BRCA2
C. CFTR and FBN1
D. RET and MEN1

ANSweR: B. BRCA1 and BRCA2

RAtioNAle: BRCA1 and BRCA2 are tumor suppressor genes associated with hereditary breast
and ovarian cancer syndrome. Mutations in these genes significantly increase the risk of breast,
ovarian, pancreatic, and prostate cancer. APC mutations (A) are associated with familial
adenomatous polyposis. CFTR (C) is associated with cystic fibrosis. RET (D) is associated with
multiple endocrine neoplasia.


Question 7
A patient with a history of chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) develops Barrett's
esophagus. The nurse practitioner understands that this change represents:
A. Hyperplasia
B. Atrophy
C. Metaplasia
D. Dysplasia

ANSweR: C. Metaplasia

RAtioNAle: Barrett's esophagus is a metaplastic change in which the normal stratified
squamous epithelium of the esophagus is replaced by columnar epithelium similar to that of the
stomach. This is an adaptive response to chronic acid exposure but increases the risk of
esophageal adenocarcinoma.


Question 8
Which of the following is a characteristic of malignant (cancerous) cells?
A. Well-differentiated cells
B. Slow, controlled growth

Información del documento

Subido en
2 de septiembre de 2026
Número de páginas
37
Escrito en
2026/2027
Tipo
Examen
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