SLP PRAXIS EXAM-COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
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1. Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for supplying sensory innervation to the
anterior two-thirds of the tongue for general sensation such as touch and temperature?
A. CN V (Trigeminal)
B. CN VII (Facial)
C. CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
D. CN XII (Hypoglossal)
Answer: A
Rationale: The lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular division of Cranial Nerve V
(Trigeminal), provides general sensory innervation (touch, pain, temperature) to the anterior
two-thirds of the tongue. CN VII provides taste to this area, CN IX provides taste and general
sensation to the posterior one-third, and CN XII provides motor innervation to intrinsic and
extrinsic tongue muscles.
2. A 4-year-old child demonstrates the phonological process of stopping. Which of the
following word productions reflects this specific error pattern?
A. Producing "top" for "sop"
B. Producing "tat" for "cat"
C. Producing "pan" for "fan"
D. Producing "tup" for "cup"
Answer: C
Rationale: Stopping occurs when a fricative or affricate is replaced by a stop consonant.
Substituting /p/ (a voiceless bilabial stop) for /f/ (a voiceless labiodental fricative) in "fan" to
produce "pan" is a classic demonstration of stopping. Substituting /t/ for /k/ demonstrates
velar fronting.
3. In acoustic phonetics, which formant frequency is primarily associated with tongue
advancement (front-back dimension) during vowel production?
A. First formant (F1)
B. Second formant (F2)
C. Third formant (F3)
D. Fundamental frequency (F0)
Answer: B
,Rationale: Second formant frequency (F2) correlates inversely with tongue backness and
directly with tongue advancement; front vowels have higher F2 frequencies than back vowels.
First formant frequency (F1) is inversely related to vowel height (tongue elevation).
4. Which muscle is the primary muscle responsible for abducting the vocal folds to open the
glottis during respiration?
A. Lateral cricoarytenoid
B. Posterior cricoarytenoid
C. Interarytenoid
D. Thyroarytenoid
Answer: B
Rationale: The posterior cricoarytenoid (PCA) muscle is the sole muscle responsible for vocal
fold abduction. Contraction of the PCA rotates the arytenoid cartilages laterally, pulling the
vocal processes apart and opening the glottis. The lateral cricoarytenoid and interarytenoids
act as adductors.
5. What is the average normal fundamental frequency (F0) range for adult females during
conversational speech tasks?
A. 80–120 Hz
B. 180–220 Hz
C. 280–320 Hz
D. 350–400 Hz
Answer: B
Rationale: The average fundamental frequency for adult females during habitual speaking
tasks ranges between approximately 180 Hz and 220 Hz. Adult males typically average around
100–125 Hz, while young children typically speak with an average F0 near 250–300 Hz or
higher.
6. A speech-language pathologist assesses a child who omits final consonants in words
across all contexts (e.g., producing "ba" for "ball"). According to developmental norms, by
what age should final consonant deletion typically be eliminated?
A. 2 years, 0 months
B. 3 years, 0 months
C. 4 years, 6 months
D. 6 years, 0 months
Answer: B
,Rationale: The phonological process of final consonant deletion is typically suppressed by 3
years of age in standard speech development. Persistence past age 3 indicates a phonological
delay or disorder requiring targeted speech therapy intervention.
7. Which phase of the normal swallow is under voluntary neurological control?
A. Pharyngeal phase
B. Esophageal phase
C. Oral preparatory phase
D. Reflexive pharyngeal initiation phase
Answer: C
Rationale: The oral preparatory phase and oral transit phase are under voluntary cortical
control, allowing individuals to chew, manipulate, and transport the bolus posteriorly. Once
the pharyngeal swallow trigger occurs, the pharyngeal and esophageal phases proceed
involuntarily via brainstem reflex pathways.
8. Which anatomical structure moves superiorly and anteriorly during the pharyngeal
swallow to contribute to airway protection and opening of the upper esophageal sphincter?
A. Epiglottis
B. Hyolaryngeal complex
C. Soft palate
D. Cricopharyngeus muscle
Answer: B
Rationale: Hyolaryngeal elevation and anterior excursion pull the larynx up and forward
beneath the base of the tongue. This displacement physically draws open the upper esophageal
sphincter (cricopharyngeus) and assists in epiglottic inversion for lower airway protection.
9. Under the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA), what is the statutory
deadline for completing an initial evaluation once parental consent has been received?
A. 30 calendar days
B. 45 school days
C. 60 calendar days (or state-established timeline)
D. 90 calendar days
Answer: C
Rationale: Federal IDEA guidelines specify that an initial evaluation must be conducted
within 60 calendar days of receiving parental consent, unless a state has established an
explicit alternative timeline under state regulations.
, 10. A client with fluent, well-articulated speech containing neologisms, paraphasias, and
severely impaired auditory comprehension most likely presents with which type of
aphasia?
A. Broca's aphasia
B. Wernicke's aphasia
C. Transcortical motor aphasia
D. Conduction aphasia
Answer: B
Rationale: Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by fluent, effortless, but empty speech laden
with verbal/semantic paraphasias and neologisms (jargon), accompanied by significantly
impaired auditory comprehension and poor repetition capabilities due to left posterior superior
temporal gyrus damage.
11. Which formal assessment measure is specifically designed to evaluate infant and
toddler communication milestones through parent-report questionnaires?
A. Goldman-Fristoe Test of Articulation (GFTA)
B. Rossetti Infant-Toddler Language Scale
C. Clinical Evaluation of Language Fundamentals (CELF)
D. Western Aphasia Battery (WAB)
Answer: B
Rationale: The Rossetti Infant-Toddler Language Scale is a criterion-referenced assessment
that relies on direct observation, elicitation, and parent report to evaluate interaction-
attachment, pragmatics, gesture, play, language comprehension, and language expression in
children aged birth to 3 years.
12. An SLP conducts a videofluoroscopic swallow study (VFSS) and observes penetration
during thin liquid swallows. How is penetration specifically defined in dysphagia
diagnostics?
A. Entry of material into the airway that passes below the level of the true vocal folds.
B. Entry of material into the laryngeal vestibule that remains above or at the level of the true
vocal folds without passing below them.
C. Retention of bolus material in the valleculae following the swallow.
D. Backflow of bolus material from the esophagus into the pharynx.
Answer: B
Rationale: Penetration occurs when bolus material enters the laryngeal vestibule above or
down to the level of the true vocal folds, but does not cross below them into the trachea. Entry
of material below the true vocal folds is defined as aspiration.
PLUS DETAILED RATIONALES | NEWEST STUDYGUIDE |
DOWNLOAD INSTANT PDF 2027-2028
1. Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for supplying sensory innervation to the
anterior two-thirds of the tongue for general sensation such as touch and temperature?
A. CN V (Trigeminal)
B. CN VII (Facial)
C. CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
D. CN XII (Hypoglossal)
Answer: A
Rationale: The lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular division of Cranial Nerve V
(Trigeminal), provides general sensory innervation (touch, pain, temperature) to the anterior
two-thirds of the tongue. CN VII provides taste to this area, CN IX provides taste and general
sensation to the posterior one-third, and CN XII provides motor innervation to intrinsic and
extrinsic tongue muscles.
2. A 4-year-old child demonstrates the phonological process of stopping. Which of the
following word productions reflects this specific error pattern?
A. Producing "top" for "sop"
B. Producing "tat" for "cat"
C. Producing "pan" for "fan"
D. Producing "tup" for "cup"
Answer: C
Rationale: Stopping occurs when a fricative or affricate is replaced by a stop consonant.
Substituting /p/ (a voiceless bilabial stop) for /f/ (a voiceless labiodental fricative) in "fan" to
produce "pan" is a classic demonstration of stopping. Substituting /t/ for /k/ demonstrates
velar fronting.
3. In acoustic phonetics, which formant frequency is primarily associated with tongue
advancement (front-back dimension) during vowel production?
A. First formant (F1)
B. Second formant (F2)
C. Third formant (F3)
D. Fundamental frequency (F0)
Answer: B
,Rationale: Second formant frequency (F2) correlates inversely with tongue backness and
directly with tongue advancement; front vowels have higher F2 frequencies than back vowels.
First formant frequency (F1) is inversely related to vowel height (tongue elevation).
4. Which muscle is the primary muscle responsible for abducting the vocal folds to open the
glottis during respiration?
A. Lateral cricoarytenoid
B. Posterior cricoarytenoid
C. Interarytenoid
D. Thyroarytenoid
Answer: B
Rationale: The posterior cricoarytenoid (PCA) muscle is the sole muscle responsible for vocal
fold abduction. Contraction of the PCA rotates the arytenoid cartilages laterally, pulling the
vocal processes apart and opening the glottis. The lateral cricoarytenoid and interarytenoids
act as adductors.
5. What is the average normal fundamental frequency (F0) range for adult females during
conversational speech tasks?
A. 80–120 Hz
B. 180–220 Hz
C. 280–320 Hz
D. 350–400 Hz
Answer: B
Rationale: The average fundamental frequency for adult females during habitual speaking
tasks ranges between approximately 180 Hz and 220 Hz. Adult males typically average around
100–125 Hz, while young children typically speak with an average F0 near 250–300 Hz or
higher.
6. A speech-language pathologist assesses a child who omits final consonants in words
across all contexts (e.g., producing "ba" for "ball"). According to developmental norms, by
what age should final consonant deletion typically be eliminated?
A. 2 years, 0 months
B. 3 years, 0 months
C. 4 years, 6 months
D. 6 years, 0 months
Answer: B
,Rationale: The phonological process of final consonant deletion is typically suppressed by 3
years of age in standard speech development. Persistence past age 3 indicates a phonological
delay or disorder requiring targeted speech therapy intervention.
7. Which phase of the normal swallow is under voluntary neurological control?
A. Pharyngeal phase
B. Esophageal phase
C. Oral preparatory phase
D. Reflexive pharyngeal initiation phase
Answer: C
Rationale: The oral preparatory phase and oral transit phase are under voluntary cortical
control, allowing individuals to chew, manipulate, and transport the bolus posteriorly. Once
the pharyngeal swallow trigger occurs, the pharyngeal and esophageal phases proceed
involuntarily via brainstem reflex pathways.
8. Which anatomical structure moves superiorly and anteriorly during the pharyngeal
swallow to contribute to airway protection and opening of the upper esophageal sphincter?
A. Epiglottis
B. Hyolaryngeal complex
C. Soft palate
D. Cricopharyngeus muscle
Answer: B
Rationale: Hyolaryngeal elevation and anterior excursion pull the larynx up and forward
beneath the base of the tongue. This displacement physically draws open the upper esophageal
sphincter (cricopharyngeus) and assists in epiglottic inversion for lower airway protection.
9. Under the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA), what is the statutory
deadline for completing an initial evaluation once parental consent has been received?
A. 30 calendar days
B. 45 school days
C. 60 calendar days (or state-established timeline)
D. 90 calendar days
Answer: C
Rationale: Federal IDEA guidelines specify that an initial evaluation must be conducted
within 60 calendar days of receiving parental consent, unless a state has established an
explicit alternative timeline under state regulations.
, 10. A client with fluent, well-articulated speech containing neologisms, paraphasias, and
severely impaired auditory comprehension most likely presents with which type of
aphasia?
A. Broca's aphasia
B. Wernicke's aphasia
C. Transcortical motor aphasia
D. Conduction aphasia
Answer: B
Rationale: Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by fluent, effortless, but empty speech laden
with verbal/semantic paraphasias and neologisms (jargon), accompanied by significantly
impaired auditory comprehension and poor repetition capabilities due to left posterior superior
temporal gyrus damage.
11. Which formal assessment measure is specifically designed to evaluate infant and
toddler communication milestones through parent-report questionnaires?
A. Goldman-Fristoe Test of Articulation (GFTA)
B. Rossetti Infant-Toddler Language Scale
C. Clinical Evaluation of Language Fundamentals (CELF)
D. Western Aphasia Battery (WAB)
Answer: B
Rationale: The Rossetti Infant-Toddler Language Scale is a criterion-referenced assessment
that relies on direct observation, elicitation, and parent report to evaluate interaction-
attachment, pragmatics, gesture, play, language comprehension, and language expression in
children aged birth to 3 years.
12. An SLP conducts a videofluoroscopic swallow study (VFSS) and observes penetration
during thin liquid swallows. How is penetration specifically defined in dysphagia
diagnostics?
A. Entry of material into the airway that passes below the level of the true vocal folds.
B. Entry of material into the laryngeal vestibule that remains above or at the level of the true
vocal folds without passing below them.
C. Retention of bolus material in the valleculae following the swallow.
D. Backflow of bolus material from the esophagus into the pharynx.
Answer: B
Rationale: Penetration occurs when bolus material enters the laryngeal vestibule above or
down to the level of the true vocal folds, but does not cross below them into the trachea. Entry
of material below the true vocal folds is defined as aspiration.
