NRNP 6635 Study Guide, Original Practice Questions &
Answers, Comprehensive PMHNP Exam Preparation,
Psychopathology Review, Psychiatric Assessment, Mental
Status Examination, DSM-5-TR, Diagnostic Reasoning,
Differential Diagnosis, Diagnostic Formulation,
Neurobiology, Mood Disorders, Anxiety Disorders,
Psychotic Disorders, Trauma-Related Disorders, Substance
Use Disorders, Neurodevelopmental Disorders,
Neurocognitive Disorders, Personality Disorders & Clinical
Decision-Making
Question 1: A 45-year-old patient with a history of hypertension presents with
a sudden onset of severe headache, confusion, and visual disturbances. An
MRI reveals a posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome (PRES). Which of
the following is the most likely underlying cause in this patient?
A. Severe hypercalcemia
B. Uncontrolled hypertension
C. Acute hepatic failure
D. Thiamine deficiency
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Uncontrolled hypertension
Rationale: PRES is a clinical-neuroradiological syndrome most commonly associated
with acute, severe hypertension that exceeds the limits of cerebral autoregulation,
leading to vasogenic edema. While hepatic failure and other conditions can cause PRES,
in a patient with a known history of hypertension, uncontrolled blood pressure is the
most frequent precipitant.
Question 2: In a patient with a suspected diagnosis of Huntington's disease,
which pattern of inheritance is responsible for the condition?
A. Autosomal recessive
B. Autosomal dominant
C. X-linked recessive
D. Mitochondrial
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Autosomal dominant
Rationale: Huntington's disease is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. This
means that only one copy of the mutated gene from an affected parent is sufficient to
cause the disorder in the offspring, with a 50% chance of transmission .
Question 3: A 68-year-old patient presents with a 3-month history of
progressive memory loss, difficulty finding words, and personality changes.
The patient's family reports a gradual decline in the ability to perform daily
tasks. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
,A. Major Depressive Disorder with cognitive impairment
B. Delirium
C. Alzheimer's Disease
D. Mild Cognitive Impairment due to cerebrovascular disease
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Alzheimer's Disease
Rationale: The gradual onset and progression of memory loss, aphasia (difficulty
finding words), and personality changes, accompanied by functional decline, are
hallmark features of Alzheimer's disease. This contrasts with the acute onset of delirium
and the more prominent mood symptoms of major depression .
Question 4: Which of the following brain regions is most commonly associated
with the structural abnormalities observed in patients with schizophrenia?
A. Occipital lobe
B. Cerebellum
C. Prefrontal cortex
D. Brainstem
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Prefrontal cortex
Rationale: Neuroimaging studies consistently show structural abnormalities, including
reduced gray matter volume, in the prefrontal cortex of patients with schizophrenia. This
region is crucial for executive functions, which are often impaired in the disorder .
Question 5: A 22-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by
police for bizarre behavior. He reports hearing voices that no one else can hear
and believes that the FBI is monitoring his thoughts. Which type of
hallucination is he most likely experiencing?
A. Visual hallucinations
B. Olfactory hallucinations
C. Auditory hallucinations
D. Tactile hallucinations
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Auditory hallucinations
Rationale: Auditory hallucinations, particularly hearing voices, are the most common
type of hallucination in schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders . The content can
be derogatory, commanding, or threatening.
Question 6: The initial metabolism of alcohol in the body is primarily
performed by which hepatic enzyme?
A. Cytochrome P450 2D6
B. Alcohol dehydrogenase
C. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
D. Monoamine oxidase
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Alcohol dehydrogenase
,Rationale: Alcohol is primarily metabolized in the liver by the enzyme alcohol
dehydrogenase (ADH). This enzyme converts alcohol to acetaldehyde, a toxic
byproduct, which is then further metabolized by aldehyde dehydrogenase .
Question 7: A 55-year-old male with a history of alcohol use disorder is found
to have a serum assessment that is crucial when prescribing drugs for
psychiatric disorders in patients with liver compromise. Which assessment is
most critical?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Serum albumin
C. Serum potassium
D. Serum sodium
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Serum albumin
Rationale: In patients with liver disease, serum albumin levels are critical as they
indicate the liver's synthetic function. Many psychotropic medications are highly
protein-bound, and low albumin levels can lead to higher free drug concentrations,
increasing the risk of toxicity and requiring dose adjustments .
Question 8: A 30-year-old female reports experiencing recurrent panic attacks,
intense fear of having another attack, and behavioral changes aimed at
avoiding situations where escape might be difficult. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B. Panic Disorder
C. Social Anxiety Disorder
D. Agoraphobia
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Panic Disorder
Rationale: Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks,
followed by at least one month of persistent concern about having additional attacks,
worry about the consequences of the attacks, or a significant maladaptive change in
behavior related to the attacks .
Question 9: In the context of psychiatric diagnostic reasoning, what is the
primary purpose of using the Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS)?
A. To assess for depression and anxiety in a general population
B. To diagnose specific personality disorders
C. To evaluate the severity of symptoms in patients with schizophrenia
D. To screen for cognitive impairment in the elderly
CORRECT ANSWER: C. To evaluate the severity of symptoms in patients with
schizophrenia
, Rationale: The BPRS is an 18-item clinician-rated scale used to measure psychiatric
symptoms, particularly positive symptoms (e.g., hallucinations, unusual thought
content), negative symptoms (e.g., blunted affect, emotional withdrawal), and
hostility/suspiciousness in patients with schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders .
Question 10: Which of the following is an example of a positive symptom in
schizophrenia?
A. Anhedonia
B. Affective flattening
C. Avolition
D. Delusions
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Delusions
Rationale: Positive symptoms are characterized by an excess or distortion of normal
functions. Delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized speech and behavior are key
positive symptoms of schizophrenia .
Question 11: A 10-year-old child is diagnosed with encopresis. At what
minimum age can this diagnosis be correctly assigned?
A. 2 years old
B. 3 years old
C. 4 years old
D. 6 years old
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 4 years old
Rationale: According to DSM-5-TR criteria, a diagnosis of encopresis requires the child
to be at least 4 years of age (or equivalent developmental level) for the repeated passage
of feces into inappropriate places to be considered a disorder rather than a
developmental stage issue .
Question 12: A patient with persistent, unexplained physical complaints has
been evaluated by multiple specialists with no clear organic cause. Which of
the following medical conditions must be excluded as a potential cause to
support a diagnosis of Somatic Symptom Disorder?
A. Hypertension
B. Diabetes Mellitus Type 2
C. Angina Pectoris
D. Hyperlipidemia
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Angina Pectoris
Rationale: A thorough medical evaluation to rule out organic causes is essential before
diagnosing Somatic Symptom Disorder. Angina pectoris, which causes chest pain, is a
critical condition to exclude, as failing to identify it could lead to severe cardiac
consequences .