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NUR 283 COMP 2 EXAM (GALEN) –
Complete Test Bank with 300 Q&A and
Rationales for Transition to RN Practice |
Advanced Clinical Judgment, Medical-
Surgical Nursing, Pharmacology, Fluid &
Electrolyte Imbalances, Acid-Base
Disorders, Cardiovascular, Respiratory,
Endocrine, Gastrointestinal, Neurological,
Prioritization, Delegation, Comprehensive
Final Exam Prep
Complete NUR 283 Comprehensive Exam 2 test bank for Galen College
Transition to Registered Nursing Practice. 300 verified multiple-
choice questions with correct answers and detailed rationales
covering advanced clinical judgment, medical-surgical nursing,
pharmacology, fluid and electrolyte imbalances, acid-base disorders,
cardiovascular, respiratory, endocrine, gastrointestinal, and
neurological conditions. Includes prioritization, delegation, and
comprehensive patient management scenarios. Perfect for nursing
students preparing for COMP 2 finals. Questions reflect real exam
content with NCLEX-style application. Pass your Galen NUR 283
COMP 2 exam on the first attempt with this comprehensive Q&A
study resource covering all advanced concepts for RN transition
success. Updated for current curriculum.
, 2|Page
1. An RN is delegating tasks to an LPN on a medical-surgical unit. Which task is
appropriate for the RN to delegate to the LPN?
A. Perform the initial admission assessment on a new patient.
B. Administer IV push morphine to a patient with acute pain.
C. Administer oral medications to a stable patient.
D. Develop the nursing care plan for a patient with diabetes.
*C. Administer oral medications to a stable patient.
Rationale: LPNs/LVNs can administer oral medications to stable patients with
predictable outcomes. Initial admission assessments, IV push medications, and care
plan development are responsibilities that fall within the RN scope of practice and
cannot be delegated to an LPN.
2. A nurse is prioritizing care for four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess
FIRST?
A. A patient with a new colostomy who needs ostomy care teaching.
B. A patient with pneumonia who has an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air.
C. A patient who needs a scheduled blood pressure medication.
D. A patient who is requesting a pain medication for a headache.
*B. A patient with pneumonia who has an oxygen saturation of 88% on room
air.
Rationale: Airway and breathing are always the highest priority. An SpO2 of 88%
indicates hypoxemia and requires immediate intervention. The other patients have
needs that are important but not immediately life-threatening.
3. An RN is delegating a task to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which statement
by the RN demonstrates correct delegation?
A. "Please ambulate Mr. Smith in the hallway three times today."
B. "Please assess Mr. Smith's lung sounds and report any changes."
C. "Please change Mr. Smith's wound dressing this morning."
D. "Please teach Mrs. Jones how to use her incentive spirometer."
*A. "Please ambulate Mr. Smith in the hallway three times today."
Rationale: Ambulation is a routine task that can be delegated to UAP. Assessment,
wound care, and patient teaching are outside the UAP's scope of practice and must be
performed by licensed nursing staff.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient who is confused and attempting to pull out their IV
line. Which intervention should the nurse implement FIRST?
A. Apply soft wrist restraints.
B. Administer a sedative as prescribed.
C. Assess the patient for pain, urinary retention, or other causes of agitation.
D. Place the patient in a seclusion room.
*C. Assess the patient for pain, urinary retention, or other causes of agitation.
Rationale: Restraints (physical or chemical) should only be used as a last resort after all
less restrictive interventions have failed. The nurse must first assess for underlying
causes of the behavior (e.g., distended bladder, pain, infection). Alternatives like
, 3|Page
diversion, bed alarms, or frequent rounding should be attempted before considering
restraints.
5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient prescribed warfarin (Coumadin).
Which statement by the patient indicates a correct understanding of the medication?
A. "I will take ibuprofen if I have a headache."
B. "I will eat large amounts of green leafy vegetables every day."
C. "I will report any unusual bleeding or bruising to my provider."
D. "I can stop taking this medication when my blood levels are normal."
*C. "I will report any unusual bleeding or bruising to my provider."
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Patients
should monitor for signs of bleeding (hematuria, hematemesis, bruising, petechiae) and
report them immediately. NSAIDs like ibuprofen increase bleeding risk. Vitamin K
(found in green leafy vegetables) antagonizes warfarin, so intake should remain
consistent, not increased.
6. A nurse is assessing a patient's level of consciousness using the Glasgow Coma Scale
(GCS). The patient opens eyes to pain, makes incomprehensible sounds, and
withdraws to painful stimuli. What is the patient's GCS score?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
*C. 8
Rationale: The GCS score is calculated as Eye Opening (1-4) + Verbal Response (1-5) +
Motor Response (1-6). Eye opening to pain = 2. Incomprehensible sounds = 2.
Withdrawal to pain = 4. Total score = 2+2+4 = 8. A score of 8 or less indicates a
severe brain injury and coma.
7. A nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the
left lower leg. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
A. Massage the affected leg to promote circulation.
B. Apply warm compresses to the affected leg.
C. Encourage the patient to ambulate frequently.
D. Elevate the affected leg and apply compression stockings as ordered.
*D. Elevate the affected leg and apply compression stockings as ordered.
Rationale: Elevation of the affected leg promotes venous return and reduces edema.
Compression stockings help prevent further clot formation and reduce swelling.
Massaging the leg is contraindicated because it can dislodge the clot and cause a
pulmonary embolism. Bed rest with elevation is often prescribed initially, not
ambulation.
8. A nurse is providing education to a patient about the signs and symptoms of a
pulmonary embolism (PE). Which symptom should the nurse emphasize as the most
common?
A. Hemoptysis (coughing up blood).
B. Sudden onset of shortness of breath.
, 4|Page
C. Chest pain that improves with deep breathing.
D. Bradycardia.
*B. Sudden onset of shortness of breath.
Rationale: Sudden onset of dyspnea (shortness of breath) is the most common
symptom of a pulmonary embolism. Other symptoms include pleuritic chest pain,
tachycardia, tachypnea, and anxiety. Hemoptysis can occur but is less common.
Bradycardia is not a typical finding; tachycardia is more common.
9. A nurse is assessing a patient who has a history of heart failure. Which finding is the
most reliable indicator of fluid overload in this patient?
A. Peripheral edema.
B. Jugular venous distention.
C. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours.
D. Crackles in the lungs.
*C. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours.
Rationale: Daily weight is the most reliable indicator of fluid status in a patient with
heart failure. A weight gain of 2-3 pounds in 24 hours or 5 pounds in a week indicates
fluid retention and worsening heart failure. This often occurs before other signs like
edema or crackles become apparent.
10. The nurse is caring for a patient who is postoperative and is at risk for developing a
urinary tract infection (UTI). Which intervention is most effective in preventing a UTI
in a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter?
A. Irrigate the catheter with normal saline every 8 hours.
B. Keep the urinary drainage bag below the level of the bladder at all times.
C. Change the catheter every 24 hours to prevent infection.
D. Administer prophylactic antibiotics as prescribed.
*B. Keep the urinary drainage bag below the level of the bladder at all times.
Rationale: Maintaining a closed, gravity-dependent drainage system is essential to
prevent UTI. The drainage bag must always be below the level of the bladder to
prevent backflow of urine, which can introduce bacteria into the bladder. Catheters
should not be changed routinely; they are changed only when clinically indicated.
11. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. The patient develops a fever,
chills, and back pain 15 minutes after the transfusion begins. What is the nurse's
priority action?
A. Slow the infusion rate to 50 mL/hr.
B. Stop the transfusion and administer normal saline.
C. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) for the fever.
D. Notify the blood bank of a possible reaction.
*B. Stop the transfusion and administer normal saline.
Rationale: These signs indicate a possible transfusion reaction (e.g., febrile or hemolytic
reaction). The priority is to stop the transfusion immediately to prevent further
complications, then maintain IV access with normal saline (not blood) and notify the
provider and blood bank. The blood product and tubing should be sent to the blood
bank for analysis.
NUR 283 COMP 2 EXAM (GALEN) –
Complete Test Bank with 300 Q&A and
Rationales for Transition to RN Practice |
Advanced Clinical Judgment, Medical-
Surgical Nursing, Pharmacology, Fluid &
Electrolyte Imbalances, Acid-Base
Disorders, Cardiovascular, Respiratory,
Endocrine, Gastrointestinal, Neurological,
Prioritization, Delegation, Comprehensive
Final Exam Prep
Complete NUR 283 Comprehensive Exam 2 test bank for Galen College
Transition to Registered Nursing Practice. 300 verified multiple-
choice questions with correct answers and detailed rationales
covering advanced clinical judgment, medical-surgical nursing,
pharmacology, fluid and electrolyte imbalances, acid-base disorders,
cardiovascular, respiratory, endocrine, gastrointestinal, and
neurological conditions. Includes prioritization, delegation, and
comprehensive patient management scenarios. Perfect for nursing
students preparing for COMP 2 finals. Questions reflect real exam
content with NCLEX-style application. Pass your Galen NUR 283
COMP 2 exam on the first attempt with this comprehensive Q&A
study resource covering all advanced concepts for RN transition
success. Updated for current curriculum.
, 2|Page
1. An RN is delegating tasks to an LPN on a medical-surgical unit. Which task is
appropriate for the RN to delegate to the LPN?
A. Perform the initial admission assessment on a new patient.
B. Administer IV push morphine to a patient with acute pain.
C. Administer oral medications to a stable patient.
D. Develop the nursing care plan for a patient with diabetes.
*C. Administer oral medications to a stable patient.
Rationale: LPNs/LVNs can administer oral medications to stable patients with
predictable outcomes. Initial admission assessments, IV push medications, and care
plan development are responsibilities that fall within the RN scope of practice and
cannot be delegated to an LPN.
2. A nurse is prioritizing care for four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess
FIRST?
A. A patient with a new colostomy who needs ostomy care teaching.
B. A patient with pneumonia who has an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air.
C. A patient who needs a scheduled blood pressure medication.
D. A patient who is requesting a pain medication for a headache.
*B. A patient with pneumonia who has an oxygen saturation of 88% on room
air.
Rationale: Airway and breathing are always the highest priority. An SpO2 of 88%
indicates hypoxemia and requires immediate intervention. The other patients have
needs that are important but not immediately life-threatening.
3. An RN is delegating a task to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which statement
by the RN demonstrates correct delegation?
A. "Please ambulate Mr. Smith in the hallway three times today."
B. "Please assess Mr. Smith's lung sounds and report any changes."
C. "Please change Mr. Smith's wound dressing this morning."
D. "Please teach Mrs. Jones how to use her incentive spirometer."
*A. "Please ambulate Mr. Smith in the hallway three times today."
Rationale: Ambulation is a routine task that can be delegated to UAP. Assessment,
wound care, and patient teaching are outside the UAP's scope of practice and must be
performed by licensed nursing staff.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient who is confused and attempting to pull out their IV
line. Which intervention should the nurse implement FIRST?
A. Apply soft wrist restraints.
B. Administer a sedative as prescribed.
C. Assess the patient for pain, urinary retention, or other causes of agitation.
D. Place the patient in a seclusion room.
*C. Assess the patient for pain, urinary retention, or other causes of agitation.
Rationale: Restraints (physical or chemical) should only be used as a last resort after all
less restrictive interventions have failed. The nurse must first assess for underlying
causes of the behavior (e.g., distended bladder, pain, infection). Alternatives like
, 3|Page
diversion, bed alarms, or frequent rounding should be attempted before considering
restraints.
5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient prescribed warfarin (Coumadin).
Which statement by the patient indicates a correct understanding of the medication?
A. "I will take ibuprofen if I have a headache."
B. "I will eat large amounts of green leafy vegetables every day."
C. "I will report any unusual bleeding or bruising to my provider."
D. "I can stop taking this medication when my blood levels are normal."
*C. "I will report any unusual bleeding or bruising to my provider."
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Patients
should monitor for signs of bleeding (hematuria, hematemesis, bruising, petechiae) and
report them immediately. NSAIDs like ibuprofen increase bleeding risk. Vitamin K
(found in green leafy vegetables) antagonizes warfarin, so intake should remain
consistent, not increased.
6. A nurse is assessing a patient's level of consciousness using the Glasgow Coma Scale
(GCS). The patient opens eyes to pain, makes incomprehensible sounds, and
withdraws to painful stimuli. What is the patient's GCS score?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
*C. 8
Rationale: The GCS score is calculated as Eye Opening (1-4) + Verbal Response (1-5) +
Motor Response (1-6). Eye opening to pain = 2. Incomprehensible sounds = 2.
Withdrawal to pain = 4. Total score = 2+2+4 = 8. A score of 8 or less indicates a
severe brain injury and coma.
7. A nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the
left lower leg. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
A. Massage the affected leg to promote circulation.
B. Apply warm compresses to the affected leg.
C. Encourage the patient to ambulate frequently.
D. Elevate the affected leg and apply compression stockings as ordered.
*D. Elevate the affected leg and apply compression stockings as ordered.
Rationale: Elevation of the affected leg promotes venous return and reduces edema.
Compression stockings help prevent further clot formation and reduce swelling.
Massaging the leg is contraindicated because it can dislodge the clot and cause a
pulmonary embolism. Bed rest with elevation is often prescribed initially, not
ambulation.
8. A nurse is providing education to a patient about the signs and symptoms of a
pulmonary embolism (PE). Which symptom should the nurse emphasize as the most
common?
A. Hemoptysis (coughing up blood).
B. Sudden onset of shortness of breath.
, 4|Page
C. Chest pain that improves with deep breathing.
D. Bradycardia.
*B. Sudden onset of shortness of breath.
Rationale: Sudden onset of dyspnea (shortness of breath) is the most common
symptom of a pulmonary embolism. Other symptoms include pleuritic chest pain,
tachycardia, tachypnea, and anxiety. Hemoptysis can occur but is less common.
Bradycardia is not a typical finding; tachycardia is more common.
9. A nurse is assessing a patient who has a history of heart failure. Which finding is the
most reliable indicator of fluid overload in this patient?
A. Peripheral edema.
B. Jugular venous distention.
C. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours.
D. Crackles in the lungs.
*C. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours.
Rationale: Daily weight is the most reliable indicator of fluid status in a patient with
heart failure. A weight gain of 2-3 pounds in 24 hours or 5 pounds in a week indicates
fluid retention and worsening heart failure. This often occurs before other signs like
edema or crackles become apparent.
10. The nurse is caring for a patient who is postoperative and is at risk for developing a
urinary tract infection (UTI). Which intervention is most effective in preventing a UTI
in a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter?
A. Irrigate the catheter with normal saline every 8 hours.
B. Keep the urinary drainage bag below the level of the bladder at all times.
C. Change the catheter every 24 hours to prevent infection.
D. Administer prophylactic antibiotics as prescribed.
*B. Keep the urinary drainage bag below the level of the bladder at all times.
Rationale: Maintaining a closed, gravity-dependent drainage system is essential to
prevent UTI. The drainage bag must always be below the level of the bladder to
prevent backflow of urine, which can introduce bacteria into the bladder. Catheters
should not be changed routinely; they are changed only when clinically indicated.
11. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. The patient develops a fever,
chills, and back pain 15 minutes after the transfusion begins. What is the nurse's
priority action?
A. Slow the infusion rate to 50 mL/hr.
B. Stop the transfusion and administer normal saline.
C. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) for the fever.
D. Notify the blood bank of a possible reaction.
*B. Stop the transfusion and administer normal saline.
Rationale: These signs indicate a possible transfusion reaction (e.g., febrile or hemolytic
reaction). The priority is to stop the transfusion immediately to prevent further
complications, then maintain IV access with normal saline (not blood) and notify the
provider and blood bank. The blood product and tubing should be sent to the blood
bank for analysis.
