,NUR 2502 Final Exam Multidimensional Care III Questions And
Answers 2026/2027 Rasmussen
Q1.
A client suddenly becomes unresponsive, and the cardiac monitor
shows ventricular fibrillation. After activating the emergency
response, what should the nurse do next?
A) Begin CPR
B) Obtain a 12-lead ECG
C) Administer oral medication
D) Prepare the client for ambulation
Correct Answer: A) Begin CPR
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a pulseless, life-threatening rhythm.
Immediate high-quality CPR should begin while a defibrillator is prepared.
Q2.
Which rhythm requires immediate defibrillation rather than
synchronized cardioversion when the client is pulseless?
A) Atrial fibrillation
B) Ventricular fibrillation
C) Supraventricular tachycardia with a pulse
D) Atrial flutter with a pulse
Correct Answer: B) Ventricular fibrillation
Rationale: Pulseless ventricular fibrillation is a shockable rhythm treated
with unsynchronized defibrillation.
Q3.
A client reports pressure-like chest discomfort radiating to the jaw
and left arm. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A) Myocardial ischemia
B) Gastritis
C) Renal colic
D) Cystitis
Correct Answer: A) Myocardial ischemia
Rationale: Pressure or squeezing chest discomfort with radiation to the arm
or jaw is a classic manifestation of myocardial ischemia.
Q4.
Which finding may represent an atypical myocardial infarction
presentation?
,A) Sudden diaphoresis and unexplained fatigue
B) Severe localized abdominal tenderness only
C) Improved exercise tolerance
D) Increased appetite
Correct Answer: A) Sudden diaphoresis and unexplained fatigue
Rationale: Women and older adults may present with atypical MI symptoms
such as fatigue, dyspnea, nausea, or diaphoresis rather than classic chest
pain.
Q5.
Which laboratory marker is most specific for myocardial injury?
A) Troponin
B) Sodium
C) Potassium
D) Albumin
Correct Answer: A) Troponin
Rationale: Cardiac troponins are sensitive and specific biomarkers of
myocardial injury.
Q6.
A client with suspected acute coronary syndrome has oxygen
saturation of 84%. What is the nurse's priority?
A) Address oxygenation and respiratory status
B) Begin discharge teaching
C) Encourage ambulation
D) Offer a large meal
Correct Answer: A) Address oxygenation and respiratory status
Rationale: Significant hypoxemia is an immediate threat to life and requires
prompt intervention.
Q7.
Which medication is commonly administered to inhibit platelet
aggregation during acute coronary syndrome?
A) Aspirin
B) Furosemide
C) Digoxin
D) Albuterol
, Correct Answer: A) Aspirin
Rationale: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation and is a key therapy in many
acute coronary syndromes.
Q8.
A client with angina reports chest pain that occurs predictably with
exertion and resolves with rest. Which type of angina is most likely?
A) Stable angina
B) Unstable angina
C) Variant angina only
D) Pleuritic pain
Correct Answer: A) Stable angina
Rationale: Stable angina typically occurs with predictable exertion and
improves with rest or prescribed antianginal therapy.
Q9.
Which characteristic is most concerning for unstable angina?
A) Chest pain occurring at rest or with decreasing levels of exertion
B) Pain occurring only after intense exercise
C) Pain always relieved immediately by rest
D) Pain occurring only after meals
Correct Answer: A) Chest pain occurring at rest or with decreasing levels of
exertion
Rationale: New, worsening, or rest angina suggests acute coronary
syndrome and requires urgent evaluation.
Q10.
A client with heart failure has severe dyspnea and bilateral crackles.
Which position should the nurse use?
A) High-Fowler's
B) Flat supine
C) Trendelenburg
D) Prone with the head flat
Correct Answer: A) High-Fowler's
Rationale: Upright positioning can reduce venous return and improve lung
expansion, helping relieve pulmonary congestion.
Q11.
Which finding is most characteristic of left-sided heart failure?
A) Pulmonary crackles
Answers 2026/2027 Rasmussen
Q1.
A client suddenly becomes unresponsive, and the cardiac monitor
shows ventricular fibrillation. After activating the emergency
response, what should the nurse do next?
A) Begin CPR
B) Obtain a 12-lead ECG
C) Administer oral medication
D) Prepare the client for ambulation
Correct Answer: A) Begin CPR
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a pulseless, life-threatening rhythm.
Immediate high-quality CPR should begin while a defibrillator is prepared.
Q2.
Which rhythm requires immediate defibrillation rather than
synchronized cardioversion when the client is pulseless?
A) Atrial fibrillation
B) Ventricular fibrillation
C) Supraventricular tachycardia with a pulse
D) Atrial flutter with a pulse
Correct Answer: B) Ventricular fibrillation
Rationale: Pulseless ventricular fibrillation is a shockable rhythm treated
with unsynchronized defibrillation.
Q3.
A client reports pressure-like chest discomfort radiating to the jaw
and left arm. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A) Myocardial ischemia
B) Gastritis
C) Renal colic
D) Cystitis
Correct Answer: A) Myocardial ischemia
Rationale: Pressure or squeezing chest discomfort with radiation to the arm
or jaw is a classic manifestation of myocardial ischemia.
Q4.
Which finding may represent an atypical myocardial infarction
presentation?
,A) Sudden diaphoresis and unexplained fatigue
B) Severe localized abdominal tenderness only
C) Improved exercise tolerance
D) Increased appetite
Correct Answer: A) Sudden diaphoresis and unexplained fatigue
Rationale: Women and older adults may present with atypical MI symptoms
such as fatigue, dyspnea, nausea, or diaphoresis rather than classic chest
pain.
Q5.
Which laboratory marker is most specific for myocardial injury?
A) Troponin
B) Sodium
C) Potassium
D) Albumin
Correct Answer: A) Troponin
Rationale: Cardiac troponins are sensitive and specific biomarkers of
myocardial injury.
Q6.
A client with suspected acute coronary syndrome has oxygen
saturation of 84%. What is the nurse's priority?
A) Address oxygenation and respiratory status
B) Begin discharge teaching
C) Encourage ambulation
D) Offer a large meal
Correct Answer: A) Address oxygenation and respiratory status
Rationale: Significant hypoxemia is an immediate threat to life and requires
prompt intervention.
Q7.
Which medication is commonly administered to inhibit platelet
aggregation during acute coronary syndrome?
A) Aspirin
B) Furosemide
C) Digoxin
D) Albuterol
, Correct Answer: A) Aspirin
Rationale: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation and is a key therapy in many
acute coronary syndromes.
Q8.
A client with angina reports chest pain that occurs predictably with
exertion and resolves with rest. Which type of angina is most likely?
A) Stable angina
B) Unstable angina
C) Variant angina only
D) Pleuritic pain
Correct Answer: A) Stable angina
Rationale: Stable angina typically occurs with predictable exertion and
improves with rest or prescribed antianginal therapy.
Q9.
Which characteristic is most concerning for unstable angina?
A) Chest pain occurring at rest or with decreasing levels of exertion
B) Pain occurring only after intense exercise
C) Pain always relieved immediately by rest
D) Pain occurring only after meals
Correct Answer: A) Chest pain occurring at rest or with decreasing levels of
exertion
Rationale: New, worsening, or rest angina suggests acute coronary
syndrome and requires urgent evaluation.
Q10.
A client with heart failure has severe dyspnea and bilateral crackles.
Which position should the nurse use?
A) High-Fowler's
B) Flat supine
C) Trendelenburg
D) Prone with the head flat
Correct Answer: A) High-Fowler's
Rationale: Upright positioning can reduce venous return and improve lung
expansion, helping relieve pulmonary congestion.
Q11.
Which finding is most characteristic of left-sided heart failure?
A) Pulmonary crackles
