NR667 FNP Capstone Week 2 Exam –
2026/2027 Edition – Complete Questions &
Verified Correct Answers
Questions with Step-by-Step Answers | 100% Verified | A+ Graded Review
OVERVIEW:
NR667 FNP Capstone Week 2 Exam – 2026/2027 covers comprehensive FNP core:
cardiovascular (PAD, heart failure, CAD, hypertension, dyslipidemia), endocrine
(diabetes, thyroid, pituitary, adrenal), renal/GU, GI, pulmonary, musculoskeletal,
dermatology, neuro (stroke, headache), pediatrics (growth, vaccines, jaundice),
women's health, psychiatry, infectious disease, prevention, ethics, and health
promotion. Emphasizes diagnosis, pharmacology, clinical decision-making, and
evidence-based management for primary care with rationales supporting
differential diagnosis, screening guidelines, lifestyle counseling, and safe
prescribing across lifespan to prepare for certification and real-world practice
successfully effectively.
Answers are in bold Green, with rationales
Question 1: Your patient presents with pale, waxy legs, weak peripheral pulses, and
states he is having difficulty walking great distances due to the pain in his calves.
The most appropriate non-invasive test to evaluate his leg vascular flow quality is
which of the following exams?
● Angiogram of the leg with runoff
● Bilateral popliteal blood pressures
● Ankle Brachial Index (ABI)
● Exercise stress test
Rationale: ABI is the most effective way to evaluate vascular flow in a non-
invasive way, and the angiogram of the leg with runoff is the best invasive way.
Bilateral popliteal blood pressures would not show discretion between upper
, and lower body if both equally low, and exercise stress tests are not used as a
diagnostic tool for claudication or PAD.
Question 2: The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a
trademark of which of the following diagnoses?
● Grade 2 systolic dysfunction
● Systolic heart failure
● Grade 3 systolic dysfunction
● Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of
diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients with thickened hypertrophic
myocardium.
Question 3: A geriatric patient is being treated for recurrent deep vein thrombosis
with warfarin, 5mg PO daily. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is 1.5. The
nurse practitioner should:
● Maintain the dose
● Increase the dose
● Hold the dose
● Decrease the dose
Rationale: The goal for DVT management is 2.0-3.0 and therefore the dose
should be increased. Of note (and not addressed in the context of this question),
this patient should be bridged if they have an active thrombus as initiating
warfarin without first bridging them may precipitate development of
worsening of the thrombotic burden before it gets smaller due to the
immediate affect of inhibiting protein C and protein S, which act as the body's
natural anticoagulant. That is beyond the scope of this question, but very
important to ask during the care of ANY patient with a known thrombotic state.
If they have an active clot, thrombus, or embolus, unless there is a very
particular reason as to why
Question 4: Recommendation for lipid check in adolescent with type 1 DM?
● 10 years
, ● 5 years
● 2 years
● 1 year
Rationale: Remember than with pediatric patients with diabetes, the easiest
way to remember the evaluation schedule is to perform lipid checks is with
annual physicals.
Question 5: An example of secondary prevention for a diagnosis of coronary artery
disease includes which of the following?
● Practicing yoga and meditation to reduce stress
● Coronary artery bypass grafting
● Controlling hypertension
● LDL decreasing from 120 to 98 with healthy diet
Rationale: CABG represents the only guaranteed evidence of fixing patients
who already have coronary artery disease. The rest remain as primary
prevention strategies.
Question 6: An adult patient recently placed on angiotensin-converting enzyme
(ACE) inhibitor for hypertension returns with a report of a dry, persistent cough. On
examination, no indication of a respiratory problem is noted. Which of the following
is the most appropriate intervention?
● Continue the current treatment regimen
● Continue the ACE inhibitor and prescribe a mild antitussive
● Switch to an angiotensin II receptor blocker
● Obtain a chest X-ray with posterior-anterior and lateral views
Question 7: What is the chamber which directly pumps blood into the ascending
aorta?
● Right Atrium
● Right Ventricle
● Left Atrium
● Left Ventricle
, Rationale: In the pathway of cardiac blood flow, the aorta is directly after the
left ventricular outflow tract.
Question 8: You are the nurse practitioner caring for the patient with a diagnosis of
premature atrial contractions. Initial treatment should include which priority
intervention?
● Performing a comprehensive physical examination
● Palpating a radial pulse while auscultating heart tones for pulse deficits
● Ordering 2L NC oxygen if symptomatic
● Ordering a 12-lead EKG
Question 9: At a follow up from a hospitalization, an adult patient presents with
ankle edema. Which of the following medications is the most likely cause of the
edema?
● HCTZ
● Metformin
● Norvasc
● Nebivolol
Rationale: The most common side effects of calcium channel blockers include
constipation and lower extremity edema. The other options do not have any
relationship specifically with edema, in fact, hydrochlorothiazide specifically
reduces edema via diuresis.
Question 10: Ophthalmic examination of a patient with a 10-year history of poorly
controlled hypertension, despite three-drug-therapy, would most likely reveal:
● Increased vascularization
● Drusen bodies
● Arteriolar narrowing
● Optic atrophy
Question 11: A 60-year-old woman presents for a routine check-up. She has a
history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hyperlipidemia. She is
currently on lisinopril, metformin, and atorvastatin. She has no new complaints. On
2026/2027 Edition – Complete Questions &
Verified Correct Answers
Questions with Step-by-Step Answers | 100% Verified | A+ Graded Review
OVERVIEW:
NR667 FNP Capstone Week 2 Exam – 2026/2027 covers comprehensive FNP core:
cardiovascular (PAD, heart failure, CAD, hypertension, dyslipidemia), endocrine
(diabetes, thyroid, pituitary, adrenal), renal/GU, GI, pulmonary, musculoskeletal,
dermatology, neuro (stroke, headache), pediatrics (growth, vaccines, jaundice),
women's health, psychiatry, infectious disease, prevention, ethics, and health
promotion. Emphasizes diagnosis, pharmacology, clinical decision-making, and
evidence-based management for primary care with rationales supporting
differential diagnosis, screening guidelines, lifestyle counseling, and safe
prescribing across lifespan to prepare for certification and real-world practice
successfully effectively.
Answers are in bold Green, with rationales
Question 1: Your patient presents with pale, waxy legs, weak peripheral pulses, and
states he is having difficulty walking great distances due to the pain in his calves.
The most appropriate non-invasive test to evaluate his leg vascular flow quality is
which of the following exams?
● Angiogram of the leg with runoff
● Bilateral popliteal blood pressures
● Ankle Brachial Index (ABI)
● Exercise stress test
Rationale: ABI is the most effective way to evaluate vascular flow in a non-
invasive way, and the angiogram of the leg with runoff is the best invasive way.
Bilateral popliteal blood pressures would not show discretion between upper
, and lower body if both equally low, and exercise stress tests are not used as a
diagnostic tool for claudication or PAD.
Question 2: The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a
trademark of which of the following diagnoses?
● Grade 2 systolic dysfunction
● Systolic heart failure
● Grade 3 systolic dysfunction
● Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of
diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients with thickened hypertrophic
myocardium.
Question 3: A geriatric patient is being treated for recurrent deep vein thrombosis
with warfarin, 5mg PO daily. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is 1.5. The
nurse practitioner should:
● Maintain the dose
● Increase the dose
● Hold the dose
● Decrease the dose
Rationale: The goal for DVT management is 2.0-3.0 and therefore the dose
should be increased. Of note (and not addressed in the context of this question),
this patient should be bridged if they have an active thrombus as initiating
warfarin without first bridging them may precipitate development of
worsening of the thrombotic burden before it gets smaller due to the
immediate affect of inhibiting protein C and protein S, which act as the body's
natural anticoagulant. That is beyond the scope of this question, but very
important to ask during the care of ANY patient with a known thrombotic state.
If they have an active clot, thrombus, or embolus, unless there is a very
particular reason as to why
Question 4: Recommendation for lipid check in adolescent with type 1 DM?
● 10 years
, ● 5 years
● 2 years
● 1 year
Rationale: Remember than with pediatric patients with diabetes, the easiest
way to remember the evaluation schedule is to perform lipid checks is with
annual physicals.
Question 5: An example of secondary prevention for a diagnosis of coronary artery
disease includes which of the following?
● Practicing yoga and meditation to reduce stress
● Coronary artery bypass grafting
● Controlling hypertension
● LDL decreasing from 120 to 98 with healthy diet
Rationale: CABG represents the only guaranteed evidence of fixing patients
who already have coronary artery disease. The rest remain as primary
prevention strategies.
Question 6: An adult patient recently placed on angiotensin-converting enzyme
(ACE) inhibitor for hypertension returns with a report of a dry, persistent cough. On
examination, no indication of a respiratory problem is noted. Which of the following
is the most appropriate intervention?
● Continue the current treatment regimen
● Continue the ACE inhibitor and prescribe a mild antitussive
● Switch to an angiotensin II receptor blocker
● Obtain a chest X-ray with posterior-anterior and lateral views
Question 7: What is the chamber which directly pumps blood into the ascending
aorta?
● Right Atrium
● Right Ventricle
● Left Atrium
● Left Ventricle
, Rationale: In the pathway of cardiac blood flow, the aorta is directly after the
left ventricular outflow tract.
Question 8: You are the nurse practitioner caring for the patient with a diagnosis of
premature atrial contractions. Initial treatment should include which priority
intervention?
● Performing a comprehensive physical examination
● Palpating a radial pulse while auscultating heart tones for pulse deficits
● Ordering 2L NC oxygen if symptomatic
● Ordering a 12-lead EKG
Question 9: At a follow up from a hospitalization, an adult patient presents with
ankle edema. Which of the following medications is the most likely cause of the
edema?
● HCTZ
● Metformin
● Norvasc
● Nebivolol
Rationale: The most common side effects of calcium channel blockers include
constipation and lower extremity edema. The other options do not have any
relationship specifically with edema, in fact, hydrochlorothiazide specifically
reduces edema via diuresis.
Question 10: Ophthalmic examination of a patient with a 10-year history of poorly
controlled hypertension, despite three-drug-therapy, would most likely reveal:
● Increased vascularization
● Drusen bodies
● Arteriolar narrowing
● Optic atrophy
Question 11: A 60-year-old woman presents for a routine check-up. She has a
history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hyperlipidemia. She is
currently on lisinopril, metformin, and atorvastatin. She has no new complaints. On
