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NR 602 WEEK 8 FINAL EXAM PRACTICE 2026 COMPLETE
(105) CURRENT TESTING QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES.
NR 602
Prepare for the NR 602 Week 8 Final Exam with this comprehensive practice resource
designed for Chamberlain College of Nursing students. It features exam-style
questions covering pediatric primary care, health assessment, common childhood
conditions, pharmacology, preventive care, and evidence-based clinical decision-
making. Use it to reinforce essential concepts, assess your knowledge, and build
confidence before your final exam. An excellent study aid for students preparing for
the NR 602 Week 8 Final Exam.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
Question 1: A sexually active 18-year-old presents with postcoital spotting,
dysuria, and a yellow discharge. On exam, you find her cervix is erythematous
and bleeds with contact. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Cervical cancer
B. Chlamydia
C. Primary syphilis
D. Tampon injury
Correct answer: B. Chlamydia
Rationale: Chlamydia trachomatis infection typically presents with
mucopurulent cervicitis, characterized by postcoital spotting, dysuria,
yellow discharge, and a friable (bleeds with contact), erythematous
cervix .
Question 2: One of the leading causes of female infertility, Stein-Leventhal
syndrome is:
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Polycystic ovary disease
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C. Multiple sex partners
D. Ectopic pregnancy syndrome
Correct answer: B. Polycystic ovary disease
Rationale: Stein-Leventhal syndrome is another name for polycystic ovary
syndrome (PCOS). PCOS is a leading cause of anovulatory infertility due
to chronic anovulation and is characterized by hyperandrogenism, oligo-
ovulation/anovulation, and polycystic ovaries .
Question 3: HIV testing is indicated for a(n):
A. 18-year-old female whose sex partner has a history of genital warts
B. 24-year-old female with current genital warts as adjunct to routine Pap test
C. 30-year-old female with no history of genital warts as adjunct to routine Pap
test
D. 67-year-old female with new sex partner in past year who has history of
genital warts
Correct answer: C. 30-year-old female with no history of genital warts as
adjunct to routine Pap test
Rationale: HIV testing is indicated as part of routine care for all sexually
active women aged 13-64, regardless of risk factors. The CDC
recommends routine HIV screening at least once for all adults in
healthcare settings .
Question 4: Which of the following contraceptive methods would be best for a
woman with sickle cell anemia?
A. Combination oral contraceptives
B. Transdermal contraceptive patch
C. Progestin-only contraceptives
D. Female condom
Correct answer: C. Progestin-only contraceptives
Rationale: Progestin-only contraceptives are preferred for women with
sickle cell disease because estrogen-containing contraceptives may
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increase the risk of thrombotic events. Progestin-only methods are safe
and effective in this population .
Question 5: A patient taking metronidazole and cimetidine at the same time is
at risk for:
A. Bothersome side effect from the metronidazole
B. Decreased effectiveness of cimetidine
C. Renal impairment
D. Severe disulfiram-type reaction
Correct answer: B. Decreased effectiveness of cimetidine
Rationale: Cimetidine can decrease the clearance of metronidazole,
potentially increasing metronidazole levels and toxicity. Additionally,
metronidazole can decrease the metabolism of cimetidine. Clinically
significant interactions may occur .
Question 6: A 24-year-old female presents with complaint of nontender mass
in her breast that does not change with the menstrual cycle. On examination,
you notice a freely movable, 0.5cm x 1cm, rubbery nontender mass. The most
likely diagnosis is:
A. Fibroadenoma
B. Fibrocystic breast changes
C. Intraductal papilloma
D. Cystosarcoma phyllodes
Correct answer: A. Fibroadenoma
Rationale: Fibroadenomas are benign breast tumors most common in
women aged 15-35. They present as firm, rubbery, freely movable,
nontender masses that do not change with the menstrual cycle. They are
the most common benign breast tumors in this age group .
Question 7: Characteristic "strawberry spots" on the cervix may be seen with:
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A. Bacterial vaginosis
B. Chlamydia
C. Herpes genitalis
D. Trichomoniasis
Correct answer: D. Trichomoniasis
Rationale: Trichomoniasis is characterized by a "strawberry cervix"
(colpitis macularis) with petechiae and punctate hemorrhages on the
cervix. This is a classic finding in trichomoniasis .
Question 8: Turner's syndrome can be suspected when the patient has
primary amenorrhea and:
A. Blind vaginal pouch with imperforate hymen
B. Low IQ and visual disturbances
C. Normal breast development but lack of pubic and axillary hair growth
D. Short stature and webbed neck
Correct answer: D. Short stature and webbed neck
Rationale: Turner's syndrome (45, XO) is characterized by primary
amenorrhea, short stature, webbed neck, shield chest, and cubitus
valgus. These physical features, along with primary amenorrhea, suggest
Turner's syndrome .
Question 9: A 16-year-old woman has not yet begun menstruating but does
have secondary sexual characteristics. She is best described as having:
A. Asherman's syndrome
B. Oligomenorrhea
C. Primary amenorrhea
D. Secondary amenorrhea
Correct answer: C. Primary amenorrhea
Rationale: Primary amenorrhea is defined as the absence of menses by
age 15 in a patient with secondary sexual characteristics, or by age 13
without secondary sexual characteristics. This patient fits the criteria .
NR 602 WEEK 8 FINAL EXAM PRACTICE 2026 COMPLETE
(105) CURRENT TESTING QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES.
NR 602
Prepare for the NR 602 Week 8 Final Exam with this comprehensive practice resource
designed for Chamberlain College of Nursing students. It features exam-style
questions covering pediatric primary care, health assessment, common childhood
conditions, pharmacology, preventive care, and evidence-based clinical decision-
making. Use it to reinforce essential concepts, assess your knowledge, and build
confidence before your final exam. An excellent study aid for students preparing for
the NR 602 Week 8 Final Exam.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
Question 1: A sexually active 18-year-old presents with postcoital spotting,
dysuria, and a yellow discharge. On exam, you find her cervix is erythematous
and bleeds with contact. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Cervical cancer
B. Chlamydia
C. Primary syphilis
D. Tampon injury
Correct answer: B. Chlamydia
Rationale: Chlamydia trachomatis infection typically presents with
mucopurulent cervicitis, characterized by postcoital spotting, dysuria,
yellow discharge, and a friable (bleeds with contact), erythematous
cervix .
Question 2: One of the leading causes of female infertility, Stein-Leventhal
syndrome is:
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Polycystic ovary disease
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C. Multiple sex partners
D. Ectopic pregnancy syndrome
Correct answer: B. Polycystic ovary disease
Rationale: Stein-Leventhal syndrome is another name for polycystic ovary
syndrome (PCOS). PCOS is a leading cause of anovulatory infertility due
to chronic anovulation and is characterized by hyperandrogenism, oligo-
ovulation/anovulation, and polycystic ovaries .
Question 3: HIV testing is indicated for a(n):
A. 18-year-old female whose sex partner has a history of genital warts
B. 24-year-old female with current genital warts as adjunct to routine Pap test
C. 30-year-old female with no history of genital warts as adjunct to routine Pap
test
D. 67-year-old female with new sex partner in past year who has history of
genital warts
Correct answer: C. 30-year-old female with no history of genital warts as
adjunct to routine Pap test
Rationale: HIV testing is indicated as part of routine care for all sexually
active women aged 13-64, regardless of risk factors. The CDC
recommends routine HIV screening at least once for all adults in
healthcare settings .
Question 4: Which of the following contraceptive methods would be best for a
woman with sickle cell anemia?
A. Combination oral contraceptives
B. Transdermal contraceptive patch
C. Progestin-only contraceptives
D. Female condom
Correct answer: C. Progestin-only contraceptives
Rationale: Progestin-only contraceptives are preferred for women with
sickle cell disease because estrogen-containing contraceptives may
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increase the risk of thrombotic events. Progestin-only methods are safe
and effective in this population .
Question 5: A patient taking metronidazole and cimetidine at the same time is
at risk for:
A. Bothersome side effect from the metronidazole
B. Decreased effectiveness of cimetidine
C. Renal impairment
D. Severe disulfiram-type reaction
Correct answer: B. Decreased effectiveness of cimetidine
Rationale: Cimetidine can decrease the clearance of metronidazole,
potentially increasing metronidazole levels and toxicity. Additionally,
metronidazole can decrease the metabolism of cimetidine. Clinically
significant interactions may occur .
Question 6: A 24-year-old female presents with complaint of nontender mass
in her breast that does not change with the menstrual cycle. On examination,
you notice a freely movable, 0.5cm x 1cm, rubbery nontender mass. The most
likely diagnosis is:
A. Fibroadenoma
B. Fibrocystic breast changes
C. Intraductal papilloma
D. Cystosarcoma phyllodes
Correct answer: A. Fibroadenoma
Rationale: Fibroadenomas are benign breast tumors most common in
women aged 15-35. They present as firm, rubbery, freely movable,
nontender masses that do not change with the menstrual cycle. They are
the most common benign breast tumors in this age group .
Question 7: Characteristic "strawberry spots" on the cervix may be seen with:
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A. Bacterial vaginosis
B. Chlamydia
C. Herpes genitalis
D. Trichomoniasis
Correct answer: D. Trichomoniasis
Rationale: Trichomoniasis is characterized by a "strawberry cervix"
(colpitis macularis) with petechiae and punctate hemorrhages on the
cervix. This is a classic finding in trichomoniasis .
Question 8: Turner's syndrome can be suspected when the patient has
primary amenorrhea and:
A. Blind vaginal pouch with imperforate hymen
B. Low IQ and visual disturbances
C. Normal breast development but lack of pubic and axillary hair growth
D. Short stature and webbed neck
Correct answer: D. Short stature and webbed neck
Rationale: Turner's syndrome (45, XO) is characterized by primary
amenorrhea, short stature, webbed neck, shield chest, and cubitus
valgus. These physical features, along with primary amenorrhea, suggest
Turner's syndrome .
Question 9: A 16-year-old woman has not yet begun menstruating but does
have secondary sexual characteristics. She is best described as having:
A. Asherman's syndrome
B. Oligomenorrhea
C. Primary amenorrhea
D. Secondary amenorrhea
Correct answer: C. Primary amenorrhea
Rationale: Primary amenorrhea is defined as the absence of menses by
age 15 in a patient with secondary sexual characteristics, or by age 13
without secondary sexual characteristics. This patient fits the criteria .
