NURS 5433 FNP II Final Exam Prep 2026/2027 UPDATE… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
✓ VERIFIED • 2026/2027 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NURS 5433 FNP II Final Exam Prep 2026/2027 UPDATE – UTA
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS
with Clear, Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations) / Study Guide
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Rationales
Grade: A+ Assured
ASSURED GRADE A+
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 1
,NURS 5433 FNP II Final Exam Prep 2026/2027 UPDATE… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A 45-year-old African American male with a history of Stage 2 Chronic Kidney Disease
(CKD) presents with a blood pressure of 152/94 mmHg. Which of the following is the most
appropriate first-line antihypertensive therapy?
A. Amlodipine (CCB)
B. B. Hydrochlorothiazide (Thiazide diuretic)
C. Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor)
D. presents with a blood pressure of 152/94 mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate
first-line antihypertensive therapy?
Answer: C
Rationale: According to JNC-8 and KDIGO guidelines, all patients with CKD, regardless of race,
should be treated with an ACE inhibitor or ARB to provide renal protection and reduce proteinuria. In
practice, this guides the nurse to set priorities and protect the client from harm. Safety, nutrition, and
clear communication are frequent priorities. In practice, this guides the nurse to set priorities and
protect the client from harm. Safety, nutrition, and clear communication are frequent priorities.
2. A patient presents with a ‘curtain-like’ loss of vision in the right eye. There is no pain or
redness. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Retinal detachment
B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
C. Central retinal artery occlusion
D. Optic neuritis
Answer: A
Rationale: Retinal detachment typically presents as a sudden, painless loss of vision often described
as a curtain being drawn over the eye, accompanied by floaters or flashes of light. Understanding this
helps the nurse notice early warning signs and act before the problem gets worse. Early action often
prevents bigger complications for the client. Knowing the reason behind the correct answer makes it
easier to rule out the wrong options quickly. Look for the choice that protects the client and matches
the priority need.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 2
, NURS 5433 FNP II Final Exam Prep 2026/2027 UPDATE… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
3. Which physical exam finding is most indicative of Aortic Stenosis?
A. High-pitched blowing diastolic murmur at the left sternal border
B. Mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur
C. Harsh systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur radiating to the carotids
D. Low-pitched rumbling diastolic murmur at the apex
Answer: C
Rationale: Aortic stenosis is characterized by a harsh systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur, best
heard at the right second intercostal space, radiating to the carotid arteries. Exam questions often test
whether you can pick the most practical and safe choice for the client in real situations. Focus on what
the nurse can actually do right now. Knowing the reason behind the correct answer makes it easier to
rule out the wrong options quickly. Look for the choice that protects the client and matches the priority
need.
4. A 28-year-old female at 32 weeks gestation presents with sudden onset of severe
headache, blurry vision, and epigastric pain. Her BP is 165/110 mmHg. What is the priority
management?
A. Prescribe oral Labetalol and reassess in one week
B. Immediate referral for hospitalization and delivery evaluation
C. Recommend bed rest and low sodium diet
D. Administer Ibuprofen for the headache and monitor fetal heart tones
Answer: B
Rationale: These are signs of preeclampsia with severe features or HELLP syndrome, requiring
immediate hospitalization for stabilization, seizure prophylaxis (Magnesium Sulfate), and likely
delivery. This knowledge supports safe care and helps the nurse teach the client and family clearly and
simply. Clear teaching improves cooperation and reduces anxiety. Knowing the reason behind the
correct answer makes it easier to rule out the wrong options quickly. Look for the choice that protects
the client and matches the priority need.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 3
✓ VERIFIED • 2026/2027 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NURS 5433 FNP II Final Exam Prep 2026/2027 UPDATE – UTA
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS
with Clear, Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations) / Study Guide
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Rationales
Grade: A+ Assured
ASSURED GRADE A+
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 1
,NURS 5433 FNP II Final Exam Prep 2026/2027 UPDATE… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A 45-year-old African American male with a history of Stage 2 Chronic Kidney Disease
(CKD) presents with a blood pressure of 152/94 mmHg. Which of the following is the most
appropriate first-line antihypertensive therapy?
A. Amlodipine (CCB)
B. B. Hydrochlorothiazide (Thiazide diuretic)
C. Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor)
D. presents with a blood pressure of 152/94 mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate
first-line antihypertensive therapy?
Answer: C
Rationale: According to JNC-8 and KDIGO guidelines, all patients with CKD, regardless of race,
should be treated with an ACE inhibitor or ARB to provide renal protection and reduce proteinuria. In
practice, this guides the nurse to set priorities and protect the client from harm. Safety, nutrition, and
clear communication are frequent priorities. In practice, this guides the nurse to set priorities and
protect the client from harm. Safety, nutrition, and clear communication are frequent priorities.
2. A patient presents with a ‘curtain-like’ loss of vision in the right eye. There is no pain or
redness. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Retinal detachment
B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
C. Central retinal artery occlusion
D. Optic neuritis
Answer: A
Rationale: Retinal detachment typically presents as a sudden, painless loss of vision often described
as a curtain being drawn over the eye, accompanied by floaters or flashes of light. Understanding this
helps the nurse notice early warning signs and act before the problem gets worse. Early action often
prevents bigger complications for the client. Knowing the reason behind the correct answer makes it
easier to rule out the wrong options quickly. Look for the choice that protects the client and matches
the priority need.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 2
, NURS 5433 FNP II Final Exam Prep 2026/2027 UPDATE… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
3. Which physical exam finding is most indicative of Aortic Stenosis?
A. High-pitched blowing diastolic murmur at the left sternal border
B. Mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur
C. Harsh systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur radiating to the carotids
D. Low-pitched rumbling diastolic murmur at the apex
Answer: C
Rationale: Aortic stenosis is characterized by a harsh systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur, best
heard at the right second intercostal space, radiating to the carotid arteries. Exam questions often test
whether you can pick the most practical and safe choice for the client in real situations. Focus on what
the nurse can actually do right now. Knowing the reason behind the correct answer makes it easier to
rule out the wrong options quickly. Look for the choice that protects the client and matches the priority
need.
4. A 28-year-old female at 32 weeks gestation presents with sudden onset of severe
headache, blurry vision, and epigastric pain. Her BP is 165/110 mmHg. What is the priority
management?
A. Prescribe oral Labetalol and reassess in one week
B. Immediate referral for hospitalization and delivery evaluation
C. Recommend bed rest and low sodium diet
D. Administer Ibuprofen for the headache and monitor fetal heart tones
Answer: B
Rationale: These are signs of preeclampsia with severe features or HELLP syndrome, requiring
immediate hospitalization for stabilization, seizure prophylaxis (Magnesium Sulfate), and likely
delivery. This knowledge supports safe care and helps the nurse teach the client and family clearly and
simply. Clear teaching improves cooperation and reduces anxiety. Knowing the reason behind the
correct answer makes it easier to rule out the wrong options quickly. Look for the choice that protects
the client and matches the priority need.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 3