NURS 5315 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 2 QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 2026-2…
P R O F E S S I O N A L P R A C T I C E M AT E R I A L S
NURS 5315 Advanced
Pathophysiology Exam 2
Questions & Answers 2026-
2027 | UTA | Latest Review
(Rationales)
Verified Answers Exam Ready With Rationales 106 QUESTIONS
DOCUMENT OVERVIEW
This document provides 106 questions with their correct answers and detailed rationales,
focusing on advanced pathophysiology concepts. It is an ideal study tool for students
needing to review complex disease processes and their clinical implications. This resource
directly aligns with preparation for advanced nursing exams and certification.
TOPICS
• HIV Pathophysiology & Treatment • Inflammation & Immune Mediators
• Coagulation & Hemostasis • Hypersensitivity & Autoimmunity
• Infectious Diseases • Transplantation
• Anemias • Hematologic Malignancies
Page 1
, E XA M Q U EST I O N S
Q1 QUESTION 1 OF 106
HIV EIA (3rd generation immunoassay)
CORRECT ANSWER
can use urine, saliva, or serum (most accurate), need to wait until 12 weeks post exposure to see
antibodies, >99% accurate
4th generation immunoassay- "gold standard"
measures P24 antigen
can test 10 days post exposure
RATIONALE
The 3rd generation HIV EIA detects antibodies and requires up to 12 weeks post-exposure for
seroconversion, though it is highly accurate (>99%) and can utilize various sample types including
serum. In contrast, the 4th generation EIA, considered the gold standard, detects both antibodies
and the p24 antigen, allowing for earlier detection as soon as 10 days post-exposure.
Q2 QUESTION 2 OF 106
What is the etiology, incubation, and mode of transmission for HIV
CORRECT ANSWER
Virus enters bloodstream and begins seeking out the CD4 (T-helper cells). The virus fuses to
CD4 cells and integrates with host's DNA. More CD4 cells become infected, and eventually
rupture. Overall CD4 count is reduced, leaving patient susceptible to opportunist infections.
Transmitted via bodily fluids-blood borne.
Incubates as long as 10 years in untreated individuals.
Q3 QUESTION 3 OF 106
Antiretroviral medications
Page 2
, CORRECT ANSWER
Used to impede viral replication of HIV virus, come in 6 classes
1. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
2. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
3. Protease inhibitors
4. CCR5 inhibitors- inhibits binding to CCR3
5. Fusion inhibitor- inhibits fusion between HIV and cell membrane
6. Integrate inhibitor- inhibits viral integrate enzyme
RATIONALE
Antiretroviral medications work by targeting specific stages of the HIV life cycle, such as reverse
transcription, integration, or viral assembly, to inhibit viral replication. These drugs are categorized
into six classes based on their distinct mechanisms of action against the virus.
Q4 QUESTION 4 OF 106
Effects of genetic mutation of CCR5 cell receptor
CORRECT ANSWER
Some people of European descent carry the CCR5 delta32 mutation. The mutation makes a
person functionally resistant to the HIV virus, and might be a cure for those individuals
RATIONALE
The CCR5 delta32 mutation confers functional resistance to HIV infection by preventing viral entry
into host cells, making it a potential cure for affected individuals. This tests understanding of
receptor-mediated viral tropism and genetic resistance mechanisms.
Q5 QUESTION 5 OF 106
Describe the difference between HIV and AIDS, and clinical implications
CORRECT ANSWER
CD4 count >200 is HIV, If the CD4 count drops below 200 and an AIDS defining illness occurs
then the patient is said to have AIDS. Once they have progressed, they will always have AIDS,
even if CD4 count goes up.
AIDS defining illnesses: PCP, toxoplasmosis, progressive multi focal leukoencephalopathy,
disseminated MAC, Kaposki's sarcoma, lymphoma, TB, esophageal or tracheal candida
infection, invasive cervical cancer, CMV infection, and histoplasmosis
Page 3
, Q6 QUESTION 6 OF 106
What are CM that indicate a compromised immune system in a person with HIV
CORRECT ANSWER
Thrush, cervical dysphasia, cervical carcinoma in situ, fever of 38.5 (101.3) or greater X 1 month,
oral hairy leukoplakia, herpes zoster, immune thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP), PID, peripheral
neuropathy, vaginal yeast infections, Kaposi sarcoma, presence of any opportunistic infections.
Should be treated with prophylactic antibiotics
RATIONALE
5°C signal a severely weakened immune system due to advanced HIV, necessitating prophylactic
antibiotics. This reflects the underlying principle of opportunistic infections occurring when the
CD4 count drops significantly.
Q7 QUESTION 7 OF 106
HIV EIA
CORRECT ANSWER
3rd generation immunoassay, can use urine, saliva, or serum (best), >99% accuracy
test at 12 weeks post-exposure
RATIONALE
The third-generation HIV EIA is a highly sensitive screening test capable of detecting both IgG and
IgM antibodies in various bodily fluids, offering over 99% accuracy, with seroconversion typically
occurring by 12 weeks post-exposure. This principle of detecting both antibody types and the
established window period underpins its diagnostic utility.
Q8 QUESTION 8 OF 106
4th generation immunoassay
CORRECT ANSWER
"gold standard"
can test 10 days post exposure
can result negative, positive with HIV antibody, or positive without HIV antibody
Page 4
P R O F E S S I O N A L P R A C T I C E M AT E R I A L S
NURS 5315 Advanced
Pathophysiology Exam 2
Questions & Answers 2026-
2027 | UTA | Latest Review
(Rationales)
Verified Answers Exam Ready With Rationales 106 QUESTIONS
DOCUMENT OVERVIEW
This document provides 106 questions with their correct answers and detailed rationales,
focusing on advanced pathophysiology concepts. It is an ideal study tool for students
needing to review complex disease processes and their clinical implications. This resource
directly aligns with preparation for advanced nursing exams and certification.
TOPICS
• HIV Pathophysiology & Treatment • Inflammation & Immune Mediators
• Coagulation & Hemostasis • Hypersensitivity & Autoimmunity
• Infectious Diseases • Transplantation
• Anemias • Hematologic Malignancies
Page 1
, E XA M Q U EST I O N S
Q1 QUESTION 1 OF 106
HIV EIA (3rd generation immunoassay)
CORRECT ANSWER
can use urine, saliva, or serum (most accurate), need to wait until 12 weeks post exposure to see
antibodies, >99% accurate
4th generation immunoassay- "gold standard"
measures P24 antigen
can test 10 days post exposure
RATIONALE
The 3rd generation HIV EIA detects antibodies and requires up to 12 weeks post-exposure for
seroconversion, though it is highly accurate (>99%) and can utilize various sample types including
serum. In contrast, the 4th generation EIA, considered the gold standard, detects both antibodies
and the p24 antigen, allowing for earlier detection as soon as 10 days post-exposure.
Q2 QUESTION 2 OF 106
What is the etiology, incubation, and mode of transmission for HIV
CORRECT ANSWER
Virus enters bloodstream and begins seeking out the CD4 (T-helper cells). The virus fuses to
CD4 cells and integrates with host's DNA. More CD4 cells become infected, and eventually
rupture. Overall CD4 count is reduced, leaving patient susceptible to opportunist infections.
Transmitted via bodily fluids-blood borne.
Incubates as long as 10 years in untreated individuals.
Q3 QUESTION 3 OF 106
Antiretroviral medications
Page 2
, CORRECT ANSWER
Used to impede viral replication of HIV virus, come in 6 classes
1. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
2. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
3. Protease inhibitors
4. CCR5 inhibitors- inhibits binding to CCR3
5. Fusion inhibitor- inhibits fusion between HIV and cell membrane
6. Integrate inhibitor- inhibits viral integrate enzyme
RATIONALE
Antiretroviral medications work by targeting specific stages of the HIV life cycle, such as reverse
transcription, integration, or viral assembly, to inhibit viral replication. These drugs are categorized
into six classes based on their distinct mechanisms of action against the virus.
Q4 QUESTION 4 OF 106
Effects of genetic mutation of CCR5 cell receptor
CORRECT ANSWER
Some people of European descent carry the CCR5 delta32 mutation. The mutation makes a
person functionally resistant to the HIV virus, and might be a cure for those individuals
RATIONALE
The CCR5 delta32 mutation confers functional resistance to HIV infection by preventing viral entry
into host cells, making it a potential cure for affected individuals. This tests understanding of
receptor-mediated viral tropism and genetic resistance mechanisms.
Q5 QUESTION 5 OF 106
Describe the difference between HIV and AIDS, and clinical implications
CORRECT ANSWER
CD4 count >200 is HIV, If the CD4 count drops below 200 and an AIDS defining illness occurs
then the patient is said to have AIDS. Once they have progressed, they will always have AIDS,
even if CD4 count goes up.
AIDS defining illnesses: PCP, toxoplasmosis, progressive multi focal leukoencephalopathy,
disseminated MAC, Kaposki's sarcoma, lymphoma, TB, esophageal or tracheal candida
infection, invasive cervical cancer, CMV infection, and histoplasmosis
Page 3
, Q6 QUESTION 6 OF 106
What are CM that indicate a compromised immune system in a person with HIV
CORRECT ANSWER
Thrush, cervical dysphasia, cervical carcinoma in situ, fever of 38.5 (101.3) or greater X 1 month,
oral hairy leukoplakia, herpes zoster, immune thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP), PID, peripheral
neuropathy, vaginal yeast infections, Kaposi sarcoma, presence of any opportunistic infections.
Should be treated with prophylactic antibiotics
RATIONALE
5°C signal a severely weakened immune system due to advanced HIV, necessitating prophylactic
antibiotics. This reflects the underlying principle of opportunistic infections occurring when the
CD4 count drops significantly.
Q7 QUESTION 7 OF 106
HIV EIA
CORRECT ANSWER
3rd generation immunoassay, can use urine, saliva, or serum (best), >99% accuracy
test at 12 weeks post-exposure
RATIONALE
The third-generation HIV EIA is a highly sensitive screening test capable of detecting both IgG and
IgM antibodies in various bodily fluids, offering over 99% accuracy, with seroconversion typically
occurring by 12 weeks post-exposure. This principle of detecting both antibody types and the
established window period underpins its diagnostic utility.
Q8 QUESTION 8 OF 106
4th generation immunoassay
CORRECT ANSWER
"gold standard"
can test 10 days post exposure
can result negative, positive with HIV antibody, or positive without HIV antibody
Page 4
