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Examen

NGR6202 Final Exam 1 M9-13 Questions with Verified Correct Answers

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Vista previa 4 fuera de 63 páginas

NGR6202 Final Exam 1 M9-13 Questions with Verified Correct Answers

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NGR6202 Final Exam 1 M9-13 Questions with
Verified Correct Answers
Fractures in the humerus, clavicle and acromion are treated by:

These fractures usually best heal spontaneously after proper immobilization; they rarely

require surgery.

The primary exam techniques used for assessing the musculoskeletal system are:



A. Inspection and palpation

B. Inspection and percussion

C. Auscultation and palpation

D. Palpation and percussion

A. Inspection and palpation

Typical joints affected are hands, knees, hips and spine.



A. OA

B. RA

C. General joint disease

D. Osteoporosis

A. OA



The most common symptom of OA is joint pain. OA pain tends to worsen with activity, more

often following a period of rest. OA can also cause morning stiffness and generally lasts less

than 30 minutes, unlike rheumatoid arthritis, which can cause stiffness for 45 minutes or

longer. OA is often asymmetrical, whereas RA is normally symmetrical and bilateral,

,especially in the hands. Pain on ROM and limitation of ROM are common to all forms of

OA.

Fred has been diagnosed with a trigger finger of the ring finger. Which of the following

management strategies is appropriate?



A. Surgical removal of the tendon sheath

B. NSAIDs

C. Local anesthetic injection into the tendon sheath

D. Splinting

C. Local anesthetic injection into the tendon sheath

Which of the following statements concerning the musculoskeletal examination is true?



A. The uninvolved side should be examined initially and then compared to the involved

side.

B. The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.

C. When possible, the patient should not be asked to perform active ROM exercises to

avoid causing pain

D. Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as to not cause

further injury to the patient.

A. The uninvolved side should be examined initially and then compared to the involved side.

Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal

tunnel syndrome. She has 2 young children and asks the clinician what the chances are

that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses

would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome?

,A. Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to

account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel.

B. Only people w/occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of

hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for

developing carpal tunnel.

C. An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop

carpal tunnel.

D. Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance.

B. Only people w/occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of

hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for

developing carpal tunnel.

Willow is a 67-year-old female and her bone mineral density is more than 1 SD below

the young adult reference mean. What is her diagnosis?



A. Normal bone mineral density

B. Osteopenia

C. Osteoporosis

D. Severe osteoporosis

B. Osteopenia

A 70 year-old female fell 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left elbow on

the lateral epicondyle. She thought she just bruised it, but is now worried because it has

not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly.

During your examination, you find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis, but no

, overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to

the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and

capillary refill is less than 2 seconds. What should you do?



A. Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic surgical evaluation without further

assessment.

B. Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.

C. Prescribe a splint for her left wrist and begin corticosteroid injections.

D. Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.

C. Prescribe a splint for her left wrist and begin corticosteroid injections.

Tinel's sign and Phalen's maneuver are used in identifying a common workplace

condition that the family nurse practitioner recognizes as:



A. Carpal tunnel syndrome

B. Lateral epicondylitis

C. Dupuytren's disease

D. Thoracic outlet syndrome

A. Carpal tunnel syndrome

Mrs. Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the

area of her elbow. The pain has increased following a day of gardening 1 week ago. A

physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral

epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is:



A. Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle

Información del documento

Subido en
29 de agosto de 2026
Número de páginas
63
Escrito en
2026/2027
Tipo
Examen
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