STUDY GUIDE & 161 PRACTICE QUESTIONS | 2026 ACTUAL PREP
Ophthalmology, Respiratory, GI, Infectious Disease, and Prioritization
TOPIC: Ophthalmology - Glaucoma vs. Cataracts
Q-1: A patient describes their vision as having 'halos around lights' and a gradual loss of
peripheral vision. The nurse should recognize these as classic signs of:
A. Cataracts
B. Macular Degeneration
C. Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma
D. Retinal Detachment
Correct Answer: C
Clinical Rationale: Glaucoma is characterized by increased intraocular pressure leading to peripheral vision loss
(tunnel vision) and halos. Cataracts cause central clouding/blurriness. Retinal detachment is often described as a
'curtain' closing over the eye.
TOPIC: Respiratory - COPD & Oxygen Therapy
Q-2: A patient with chronic COPD is receiving oxygen at 2L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse
notes the patient's SpO2 is 89%. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Increase oxygen to 6L/min immediately
B. Document the finding as normal for this patient
C. Switch the patient to a non-rebreather mask
D. Notify the physician of respiratory failure
Correct Answer: B
Clinical Rationale: For patients with COPD, a target SpO2 of 88-92% is often acceptable because their drive to breathe
is triggered by low oxygen levels (hypoxic drive). Hyper-oxygenating these patients can suppress their respiratory
drive.
TOPIC: Gastrointestinal - Peptic Ulcer Disease
Q-3: A patient with a duodenal ulcer reports that their abdominal pain typically occurs:
A. Immediately after eating a meal
B. 2 to 5 hours after a meal and at night
C. Only when the stomach is full
D. In the left upper quadrant, radiating to the shoulder
Correct Answer: B
Clinical Rationale: Duodenal ulcer pain is classically relieved by food and recurs 2-5 hours after eating (when the
stomach is empty). Gastric ulcer pain usually occurs sooner (30-60 mins) after eating and is worsened by food.
WGU D444 Adult Health I OA Prep - Page 1
,TOPIC: Infectious Disease - Tuberculosis (TB)
Q-4: A patient is admitted with suspected active pulmonary Tuberculosis. Which isolation
precaution must the nurse implement immediately?
A. Droplet Precautions
B. Contact Precautions
C. Airborne Precautions in a negative-pressure room
D. Standard Precautions only
Correct Answer: C
Clinical Rationale: TB is transmitted via small droplets that remain suspended in the air. Airborne precautions require
a private, negative-pressure room and the use of an N95 respirator for healthcare workers.
TOPIC: Clinical Prioritization - Post-Op Assessment
Q-5: The nurse is caring for four patients on a medical-surgical unit. Which patient should the
nurse assess first?
A. A patient 2 hours post-cholecystectomy reporting 6/10 pain
B. A patient with pneumonia who has a new onset of confusion
C. A patient with a BMI of 40 requiring assistance to the bathroom
D. A patient with DM whose blood glucose is 150 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B
Clinical Rationale: New-onset confusion (altered mental status) in a respiratory patient is a primary indicator of
hypoxia and represents a change in physiological stability (ABC priority). Pain is expected post-op and is less urgent
than potential hypoxia.
TOPIC: Ophthalmology - Glaucoma vs. Cataracts
Q-6: A patient describes their vision as having 'halos around lights' and a gradual loss of
peripheral vision. The nurse should recognize these as classic signs of:
A. Cataracts
B. Macular Degeneration
C. Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma
D. Retinal Detachment
Correct Answer: C
Clinical Rationale: Glaucoma is characterized by increased intraocular pressure leading to peripheral vision loss
(tunnel vision) and halos. Cataracts cause central clouding/blurriness. Retinal detachment is often described as a
'curtain' closing over the eye.
WGU D444 Adult Health I OA Prep - Page 2
,TOPIC: Respiratory - COPD & Oxygen Therapy
Q-7: A patient with chronic COPD is receiving oxygen at 2L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse
notes the patient's SpO2 is 89%. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Increase oxygen to 6L/min immediately
B. Document the finding as normal for this patient
C. Switch the patient to a non-rebreather mask
D. Notify the physician of respiratory failure
Correct Answer: B
Clinical Rationale: For patients with COPD, a target SpO2 of 88-92% is often acceptable because their drive to breathe
is triggered by low oxygen levels (hypoxic drive). Hyper-oxygenating these patients can suppress their respiratory
drive.
TOPIC: Gastrointestinal - Peptic Ulcer Disease
Q-8: A patient with a duodenal ulcer reports that their abdominal pain typically occurs:
A. Immediately after eating a meal
B. 2 to 5 hours after a meal and at night
C. Only when the stomach is full
D. In the left upper quadrant, radiating to the shoulder
Correct Answer: B
Clinical Rationale: Duodenal ulcer pain is classically relieved by food and recurs 2-5 hours after eating (when the
stomach is empty). Gastric ulcer pain usually occurs sooner (30-60 mins) after eating and is worsened by food.
TOPIC: Infectious Disease - Tuberculosis (TB)
Q-9: A patient is admitted with suspected active pulmonary Tuberculosis. Which isolation
precaution must the nurse implement immediately?
A. Droplet Precautions
B. Contact Precautions
C. Airborne Precautions in a negative-pressure room
D. Standard Precautions only
Correct Answer: C
Clinical Rationale: TB is transmitted via small droplets that remain suspended in the air. Airborne precautions require
a private, negative-pressure room and the use of an N95 respirator for healthcare workers.
WGU D444 Adult Health I OA Prep - Page 3
, TOPIC: Clinical Prioritization - Post-Op Assessment
Q-10: The nurse is caring for four patients on a medical-surgical unit. Which patient should the
nurse assess first?
A. A patient 2 hours post-cholecystectomy reporting 6/10 pain
B. A patient with pneumonia who has a new onset of confusion
C. A patient with a BMI of 40 requiring assistance to the bathroom
D. A patient with DM whose blood glucose is 150 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B
Clinical Rationale: New-onset confusion (altered mental status) in a respiratory patient is a primary indicator of
hypoxia and represents a change in physiological stability (ABC priority). Pain is expected post-op and is less urgent
than potential hypoxia.
TOPIC: Ophthalmology - Glaucoma vs. Cataracts
Q-11: A patient describes their vision as having 'halos around lights' and a gradual loss of
peripheral vision. The nurse should recognize these as classic signs of:
A. Cataracts
B. Macular Degeneration
C. Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma
D. Retinal Detachment
Correct Answer: C
Clinical Rationale: Glaucoma is characterized by increased intraocular pressure leading to peripheral vision loss
(tunnel vision) and halos. Cataracts cause central clouding/blurriness. Retinal detachment is often described as a
'curtain' closing over the eye.
TOPIC: Respiratory - COPD & Oxygen Therapy
Q-12: A patient with chronic COPD is receiving oxygen at 2L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse
notes the patient's SpO2 is 89%. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Increase oxygen to 6L/min immediately
B. Document the finding as normal for this patient
C. Switch the patient to a non-rebreather mask
D. Notify the physician of respiratory failure
Correct Answer: B
Clinical Rationale: For patients with COPD, a target SpO2 of 88-92% is often acceptable because their drive to breathe
is triggered by low oxygen levels (hypoxic drive). Hyper-oxygenating these patients can suppress their respiratory
drive.
WGU D444 Adult Health I OA Prep - Page 4