ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBORN PROCTORED EXAM
– QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | 2026/2027 LATEST
UPDATE
SECTION 1: HUMAN REPRODUCTION, NORMAL PREGNANCY, AND
PRENATAL CARE
Questions 1–15
1. Which contraceptive method provides protection against sexually transmitted infections
in addition to pregnancy prevention?
A) Male condom
B) Combined oral contraceptive
C) Copper intrauterine device
D) Contraceptive implant
Correct Answer: Male condom
Rationale: Male condoms create a physical barrier that reduces exposure to semen and genital
secretions and therefore provide protection against many sexually transmitted infections.
Hormonal methods and intrauterine devices are effective for pregnancy prevention but do not
protect against STIs. Condom use remains important when STI exposure is possible.
2. A client who has been unable to conceive after 12 months of regular unprotected
intercourse asks when infertility evaluation is appropriate. Which response is best?
A) “Evaluation is unnecessary until three years have passed.”
B) “An infertility evaluation is appropriate after 12 months of trying when the woman is younger
than 35.”
C) “Only the female partner requires evaluation.”
D) “Infertility is diagnosed whenever pregnancy does not occur after six months.”
Correct Answer: An infertility evaluation is appropriate after 12 months of trying when
the woman is younger than 35.
Rationale: Infertility evaluation is generally recommended after 12 months of regular
unprotected intercourse when the female partner is younger than 35. Earlier evaluation can be
appropriate with increasing maternal age or known reproductive concerns. Both partners should
be evaluated because infertility can involve female, male, combined, or unexplained factors.
3. Which finding is considered a positive indication of pregnancy?
A) Amenorrhea
B) Positive urine pregnancy test
,C) Fetal heart activity detected by Doppler
D) Breast tenderness
Correct Answer: Fetal heart activity detected by Doppler
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are findings that can be attributed only to the developing
fetus, such as fetal heart activity, visualization of the fetus, or fetal movement palpated by an
examiner. Amenorrhea, breast changes, and a positive pregnancy test are presumptive or
probable indicators and can occur for other reasons.
4. During a prenatal visit, which maternal finding is expected during an uncomplicated
pregnancy?
A) Persistent severe headache
B) Vaginal bleeding
C) Sudden facial edema
D) Increased urinary frequency during early pregnancy
Correct Answer: Increased urinary frequency during early pregnancy
Rationale: Increased urinary frequency is common during early pregnancy because of hormonal
changes and increased uterine pressure on the bladder. Severe headache, vaginal bleeding, and
sudden facial edema can indicate complications and require further assessment. Expected
physiologic changes should be distinguished from findings that suggest hypertensive or obstetric
disorders.
5. A pregnant client asks why folic acid is emphasized before conception and during early
pregnancy. Which explanation is most accurate?
A) It reduces the risk of neural tube defects.
B) It prevents gestational diabetes.
C) It eliminates the risk of preterm birth.
D) It prevents maternal hypertension.
Correct Answer: It reduces the risk of neural tube defects.
Rationale: Adequate folic acid before conception and during early pregnancy decreases the risk
of fetal neural tube defects. Neural tube development occurs very early in pregnancy, sometimes
before pregnancy is recognized. Folic acid does not eliminate other pregnancy complications, so
supplementation should be viewed as an important preventive measure rather than a universal
safeguard.
6. Which instruction should the nurse provide regarding nutrition during pregnancy?
A) Avoid all dietary fat.
B) Consume adequate protein and nutrient-dense foods.
C) Double caloric intake during the first trimester.
D) Eliminate carbohydrates completely.
,Correct Answer: Consume adequate protein and nutrient-dense foods.
Rationale: Pregnancy increases nutritional requirements for protein, vitamins, minerals, and
energy. Nutrient-dense foods help support maternal tissue growth and fetal development.
Excessive calorie restriction, eliminating entire macronutrient groups, or doubling caloric intake
unnecessarily can compromise nutritional balance and contribute to inappropriate maternal
weight gain.
7. A client asks when quickening is commonly perceived during pregnancy. Which
response is appropriate?
A) Immediately after conception
B) During the first 4 weeks
C) During the second trimester
D) Only during the third trimester
Correct Answer: During the second trimester
Rationale: Fetal movement, commonly called quickening, is generally perceived during the
second trimester. The exact timing varies according to parity, placental location, and individual
perception. Early pregnancy symptoms such as nausea and breast tenderness occur before fetal
movement can normally be perceived by the pregnant client.
8. Which finding during pregnancy requires prompt evaluation for possible preeclampsia?
A) Mild urinary frequency
B) Increased appetite
C) Occasional heartburn
D) Severe headache with visual disturbances
Correct Answer: Severe headache with visual disturbances
Rationale: Severe headache and visual disturbances are warning signs associated with severe
hypertensive disease of pregnancy. They may indicate cerebral involvement and require prompt
assessment. Mild urinary frequency, appetite changes, and heartburn can occur as normal
physiologic changes and are not by themselves characteristic warning signs of preeclampsia.
9. A client is scheduled for a nonstress test. What is the primary purpose of this
assessment?
A) Determine fetal lung maturity
B) Evaluate fetal heart-rate response to movement
C) Measure cervical dilation
D) Diagnose maternal diabetes
Correct Answer: Evaluate fetal heart-rate response to movement
Rationale: A nonstress test evaluates fetal well-being by observing fetal heart-rate accelerations
associated with fetal movement. A reassuring tracing generally indicates adequate fetal
, oxygenation and neurologic function at the time of testing. The test does not directly determine
cervical dilation, maternal glucose status, or fetal lung maturity.
10. Which assessment is commonly used to evaluate fetal well-being by combining several
ultrasound-based observations?
A) Biophysical profile
B) Pap test
C) Amniocentesis
D) Leopold maneuvers
Correct Answer: Biophysical profile
Rationale: A biophysical profile combines ultrasound observations of fetal activity and other
indicators with fetal assessment to evaluate well-being. It can provide information about fetal
breathing movements, movement, tone, and amniotic fluid volume. The other procedures serve
different purposes and do not provide the same comprehensive fetal assessment.
11. A pregnant client asks why an amniocentesis may be performed. Which response is
most appropriate?
A) “It measures maternal blood pressure.”
B) “It confirms cervical dilation.”
C) “It can obtain amniotic fluid for diagnostic testing.”
D) “It measures uterine contractions.”
Correct Answer: It can obtain amniotic fluid for diagnostic testing.
Rationale: Amniocentesis involves obtaining a sample of amniotic fluid for diagnostic purposes.
Depending on gestational age and clinical indication, testing may provide genetic,
chromosomal, or other information. It is not primarily used to measure blood pressure, cervical
dilation, or uterine contractions.
12. Which maternal statement indicates correct understanding of prenatal warning signs?
A) “Severe abdominal pain should be reported.”
B) “Heavy vaginal bleeding is expected late in pregnancy.”
C) “A persistent severe headache is normal.”
D) “Decreased fetal movement never requires evaluation.”
Correct Answer: Severe abdominal pain should be reported.
Rationale: Severe abdominal pain during pregnancy can indicate an obstetric complication and
warrants evaluation. Heavy bleeding, persistent severe headache, and decreased fetal movement
are also concerning findings rather than normal changes. Teaching should emphasize prompt
reporting of significant changes so complications can be identified and treated early.
13. Which intervention is most appropriate when teaching a pregnant client about
prevention of toxoplasmosis?
– QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | 2026/2027 LATEST
UPDATE
SECTION 1: HUMAN REPRODUCTION, NORMAL PREGNANCY, AND
PRENATAL CARE
Questions 1–15
1. Which contraceptive method provides protection against sexually transmitted infections
in addition to pregnancy prevention?
A) Male condom
B) Combined oral contraceptive
C) Copper intrauterine device
D) Contraceptive implant
Correct Answer: Male condom
Rationale: Male condoms create a physical barrier that reduces exposure to semen and genital
secretions and therefore provide protection against many sexually transmitted infections.
Hormonal methods and intrauterine devices are effective for pregnancy prevention but do not
protect against STIs. Condom use remains important when STI exposure is possible.
2. A client who has been unable to conceive after 12 months of regular unprotected
intercourse asks when infertility evaluation is appropriate. Which response is best?
A) “Evaluation is unnecessary until three years have passed.”
B) “An infertility evaluation is appropriate after 12 months of trying when the woman is younger
than 35.”
C) “Only the female partner requires evaluation.”
D) “Infertility is diagnosed whenever pregnancy does not occur after six months.”
Correct Answer: An infertility evaluation is appropriate after 12 months of trying when
the woman is younger than 35.
Rationale: Infertility evaluation is generally recommended after 12 months of regular
unprotected intercourse when the female partner is younger than 35. Earlier evaluation can be
appropriate with increasing maternal age or known reproductive concerns. Both partners should
be evaluated because infertility can involve female, male, combined, or unexplained factors.
3. Which finding is considered a positive indication of pregnancy?
A) Amenorrhea
B) Positive urine pregnancy test
,C) Fetal heart activity detected by Doppler
D) Breast tenderness
Correct Answer: Fetal heart activity detected by Doppler
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are findings that can be attributed only to the developing
fetus, such as fetal heart activity, visualization of the fetus, or fetal movement palpated by an
examiner. Amenorrhea, breast changes, and a positive pregnancy test are presumptive or
probable indicators and can occur for other reasons.
4. During a prenatal visit, which maternal finding is expected during an uncomplicated
pregnancy?
A) Persistent severe headache
B) Vaginal bleeding
C) Sudden facial edema
D) Increased urinary frequency during early pregnancy
Correct Answer: Increased urinary frequency during early pregnancy
Rationale: Increased urinary frequency is common during early pregnancy because of hormonal
changes and increased uterine pressure on the bladder. Severe headache, vaginal bleeding, and
sudden facial edema can indicate complications and require further assessment. Expected
physiologic changes should be distinguished from findings that suggest hypertensive or obstetric
disorders.
5. A pregnant client asks why folic acid is emphasized before conception and during early
pregnancy. Which explanation is most accurate?
A) It reduces the risk of neural tube defects.
B) It prevents gestational diabetes.
C) It eliminates the risk of preterm birth.
D) It prevents maternal hypertension.
Correct Answer: It reduces the risk of neural tube defects.
Rationale: Adequate folic acid before conception and during early pregnancy decreases the risk
of fetal neural tube defects. Neural tube development occurs very early in pregnancy, sometimes
before pregnancy is recognized. Folic acid does not eliminate other pregnancy complications, so
supplementation should be viewed as an important preventive measure rather than a universal
safeguard.
6. Which instruction should the nurse provide regarding nutrition during pregnancy?
A) Avoid all dietary fat.
B) Consume adequate protein and nutrient-dense foods.
C) Double caloric intake during the first trimester.
D) Eliminate carbohydrates completely.
,Correct Answer: Consume adequate protein and nutrient-dense foods.
Rationale: Pregnancy increases nutritional requirements for protein, vitamins, minerals, and
energy. Nutrient-dense foods help support maternal tissue growth and fetal development.
Excessive calorie restriction, eliminating entire macronutrient groups, or doubling caloric intake
unnecessarily can compromise nutritional balance and contribute to inappropriate maternal
weight gain.
7. A client asks when quickening is commonly perceived during pregnancy. Which
response is appropriate?
A) Immediately after conception
B) During the first 4 weeks
C) During the second trimester
D) Only during the third trimester
Correct Answer: During the second trimester
Rationale: Fetal movement, commonly called quickening, is generally perceived during the
second trimester. The exact timing varies according to parity, placental location, and individual
perception. Early pregnancy symptoms such as nausea and breast tenderness occur before fetal
movement can normally be perceived by the pregnant client.
8. Which finding during pregnancy requires prompt evaluation for possible preeclampsia?
A) Mild urinary frequency
B) Increased appetite
C) Occasional heartburn
D) Severe headache with visual disturbances
Correct Answer: Severe headache with visual disturbances
Rationale: Severe headache and visual disturbances are warning signs associated with severe
hypertensive disease of pregnancy. They may indicate cerebral involvement and require prompt
assessment. Mild urinary frequency, appetite changes, and heartburn can occur as normal
physiologic changes and are not by themselves characteristic warning signs of preeclampsia.
9. A client is scheduled for a nonstress test. What is the primary purpose of this
assessment?
A) Determine fetal lung maturity
B) Evaluate fetal heart-rate response to movement
C) Measure cervical dilation
D) Diagnose maternal diabetes
Correct Answer: Evaluate fetal heart-rate response to movement
Rationale: A nonstress test evaluates fetal well-being by observing fetal heart-rate accelerations
associated with fetal movement. A reassuring tracing generally indicates adequate fetal
, oxygenation and neurologic function at the time of testing. The test does not directly determine
cervical dilation, maternal glucose status, or fetal lung maturity.
10. Which assessment is commonly used to evaluate fetal well-being by combining several
ultrasound-based observations?
A) Biophysical profile
B) Pap test
C) Amniocentesis
D) Leopold maneuvers
Correct Answer: Biophysical profile
Rationale: A biophysical profile combines ultrasound observations of fetal activity and other
indicators with fetal assessment to evaluate well-being. It can provide information about fetal
breathing movements, movement, tone, and amniotic fluid volume. The other procedures serve
different purposes and do not provide the same comprehensive fetal assessment.
11. A pregnant client asks why an amniocentesis may be performed. Which response is
most appropriate?
A) “It measures maternal blood pressure.”
B) “It confirms cervical dilation.”
C) “It can obtain amniotic fluid for diagnostic testing.”
D) “It measures uterine contractions.”
Correct Answer: It can obtain amniotic fluid for diagnostic testing.
Rationale: Amniocentesis involves obtaining a sample of amniotic fluid for diagnostic purposes.
Depending on gestational age and clinical indication, testing may provide genetic,
chromosomal, or other information. It is not primarily used to measure blood pressure, cervical
dilation, or uterine contractions.
12. Which maternal statement indicates correct understanding of prenatal warning signs?
A) “Severe abdominal pain should be reported.”
B) “Heavy vaginal bleeding is expected late in pregnancy.”
C) “A persistent severe headache is normal.”
D) “Decreased fetal movement never requires evaluation.”
Correct Answer: Severe abdominal pain should be reported.
Rationale: Severe abdominal pain during pregnancy can indicate an obstetric complication and
warrants evaluation. Heavy bleeding, persistent severe headache, and decreased fetal movement
are also concerning findings rather than normal changes. Teaching should emphasize prompt
reporting of significant changes so complications can be identified and treated early.
13. Which intervention is most appropriate when teaching a pregnant client about
prevention of toxoplasmosis?
