WGU HESI A2 ACADEMIC READINESS FOR NURSING 2026 |
COMPREHENSIVE ORIGINAL PRACTICE QUESTIONS,
ANSWERS, AND RATIONALES | 100% CORRECT
150 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
WGU HESI A2 ACADEMIC READINESS FOR NURSING 2026 | COMPREHENSIVE ORIGINAL PRACTICE
QUESTIONS, ANSWERS, AND RATIONALES | 100% CORRECT. It contains 150 carefully selected questions
that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct
answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 150 Questions
Foundations - Application - WGU HESI A2 Academic Readiness FOR Nursing 2026 Comprehensive
Original AND Rationales 100 Correct Nursing Academic Readiness HESI A2 Undergraduate YEAR 3 /
Pre-nursing
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Anatomy AND Physiology 1-25 Blood, Pressure, Intake, Describes, Administer
Biology 26-50 Medication, Administer, Likely, Primary, Blood
Chemistry 51-75 Laboratory, Chronic, Consistent, Diagnosis, Value
Grammar AND Vocabulary 76-100 Blood, Appropriate, Prescribed, Effect, Pressure
Reading Comprehension 101-125 Mechanism, Blood, Effect, Primary, Appropriate
Mathematics 126-150 Prescribed, Describes, Blood, Disease, Receiving
TOTAL 150 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Anatomy AND Physiology
Q1.
In a patient with chronic renal failure, which physiological mechanism most directly
contributes to the development of hyperkalemia?
A. Decreased aldosterone-mediated B. Increased sodium reabsorption in the
potassium secretion in the distal tubule proximal tubule
C. Enhanced potassium excretion via the D. Upregulation of renal Na+/K+-ATPase
gastrointestinal tract activity
Correct: A - Decreased aldosterone-mediated potassium secretion in the distal tubule
Rationale:Chronic renal failure reduces functional nephron mass, leading to decreased
aldosterone responsiveness and impaired potassium secretion in the distal nephron, causing
hyperkalemia. Increased proximal reabsorption (B) and GI excretion (C) are compensatory
but not primary causes; Na+/K+-ATPase upregulation (D) would lower potassium, not raise it.
Q2.
Which of the following best describes the role of the enzyme catalase in cellular
metabolism?
A. It catalyzes the conversion of hydrogen B. It facilitates the hydrolysis of peptide
peroxide to water and oxygen bonds in proteins
C. It phosphorylates ADP to form ATP D. It oxidizes glucose to pyruvate in the
during glycolysis cytoplasm
Correct: A - It catalyzes the conversion of hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen
Rationale:Catalase is a peroxisomal enzyme that breaks down hydrogen peroxide (a reactive
oxygen species) into water and oxygen, protecting cells from oxidative damage. The other
options describe proteases (B), ATP synthase (C), and glycolytic enzymes (D), which are
distinct functions.
Q3.
A solution has a pH of 3.2. What is the concentration of hydroxide ions [OH] in this
solution at 25°C?
A. 1.58 × 10¹¹ M B. 6.31 × 10 M
C. 3.16 × 10 M D. 1.00 × 10¹ M
Correct: A - 1.58 × 10¹¹ M
Page 3
, Section A - Anatomy AND Physiology
Rationale: pH = 3.2, so [H z] = 10 {³·² = 6.31 × 10 { t M. Using Kw = [H z][OH {] = 1.0 × 10 {¹ t,
[OH] = 1.0 × 10¹ / 6.31 × 10 = 1.58 × 10¹¹ M. Option B is [H]; C is neutral; D is Kw.
Q4.
A nurse must administer 0.25 mg of digoxin. The available concentration is 0.5 mg/2 mL.
How many mL should the nurse administer?
A. 0.5 mL B. 1 mL
C. 1.5 mL D. 2 mL
Correct: B - 1 mL
Rationale:Using the formula: Desired / Have × Quantity = 0.25 mg / 0.5 mg × 2 mL = 1 mL.
Option A (0.5 mL) would give 0.125 mg; C (1.5 mL) gives 0.375 mg; D (2 mL) gives 0.5 mg.
Q5.
Read the following passage: 'Recent studies indicate that intermittent fasting may improve
metabolic health by enhancing insulin sensitivity and promoting autophagy. However,
these effects appear to be dependent on the timing of food intake relative to circadian
rhythms, and long-term adherence remains a challenge for many individuals.' Which of
the following conclusions is best supported by the passage?
A. Intermittent fasting universally improves B. The benefits of intermittent fasting are
insulin sensitivity independent of circadian timing
C. Circadian rhythms may influence the D. Long-term adherence is the primary
metabolic effects of intermittent fasting determinant of metabolic benefits
Correct: C - Circadian rhythms may influence the metabolic effects of intermittent fasting
Rationale:The passage explicitly states that the effects 'appear to be dependent on the timing
of food intake relative to circadian rhythms,' supporting C. A is too absolute ('may improve'), B
contradicts the passage, and D is not stated as primary.
Q6.
Choose the word that best completes the sentence: 'The patient's condition was ____;
despite aggressive treatment, his vital signs continued to deteriorate.'
A. Morbid B. Malignant
C. Refractory D. Acute
Correct: C - Refractory
Page 4
COMPREHENSIVE ORIGINAL PRACTICE QUESTIONS,
ANSWERS, AND RATIONALES | 100% CORRECT
150 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
WGU HESI A2 ACADEMIC READINESS FOR NURSING 2026 | COMPREHENSIVE ORIGINAL PRACTICE
QUESTIONS, ANSWERS, AND RATIONALES | 100% CORRECT. It contains 150 carefully selected questions
that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct
answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 150 Questions
Foundations - Application - WGU HESI A2 Academic Readiness FOR Nursing 2026 Comprehensive
Original AND Rationales 100 Correct Nursing Academic Readiness HESI A2 Undergraduate YEAR 3 /
Pre-nursing
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Anatomy AND Physiology 1-25 Blood, Pressure, Intake, Describes, Administer
Biology 26-50 Medication, Administer, Likely, Primary, Blood
Chemistry 51-75 Laboratory, Chronic, Consistent, Diagnosis, Value
Grammar AND Vocabulary 76-100 Blood, Appropriate, Prescribed, Effect, Pressure
Reading Comprehension 101-125 Mechanism, Blood, Effect, Primary, Appropriate
Mathematics 126-150 Prescribed, Describes, Blood, Disease, Receiving
TOTAL 150 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Anatomy AND Physiology
Q1.
In a patient with chronic renal failure, which physiological mechanism most directly
contributes to the development of hyperkalemia?
A. Decreased aldosterone-mediated B. Increased sodium reabsorption in the
potassium secretion in the distal tubule proximal tubule
C. Enhanced potassium excretion via the D. Upregulation of renal Na+/K+-ATPase
gastrointestinal tract activity
Correct: A - Decreased aldosterone-mediated potassium secretion in the distal tubule
Rationale:Chronic renal failure reduces functional nephron mass, leading to decreased
aldosterone responsiveness and impaired potassium secretion in the distal nephron, causing
hyperkalemia. Increased proximal reabsorption (B) and GI excretion (C) are compensatory
but not primary causes; Na+/K+-ATPase upregulation (D) would lower potassium, not raise it.
Q2.
Which of the following best describes the role of the enzyme catalase in cellular
metabolism?
A. It catalyzes the conversion of hydrogen B. It facilitates the hydrolysis of peptide
peroxide to water and oxygen bonds in proteins
C. It phosphorylates ADP to form ATP D. It oxidizes glucose to pyruvate in the
during glycolysis cytoplasm
Correct: A - It catalyzes the conversion of hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen
Rationale:Catalase is a peroxisomal enzyme that breaks down hydrogen peroxide (a reactive
oxygen species) into water and oxygen, protecting cells from oxidative damage. The other
options describe proteases (B), ATP synthase (C), and glycolytic enzymes (D), which are
distinct functions.
Q3.
A solution has a pH of 3.2. What is the concentration of hydroxide ions [OH] in this
solution at 25°C?
A. 1.58 × 10¹¹ M B. 6.31 × 10 M
C. 3.16 × 10 M D. 1.00 × 10¹ M
Correct: A - 1.58 × 10¹¹ M
Page 3
, Section A - Anatomy AND Physiology
Rationale: pH = 3.2, so [H z] = 10 {³·² = 6.31 × 10 { t M. Using Kw = [H z][OH {] = 1.0 × 10 {¹ t,
[OH] = 1.0 × 10¹ / 6.31 × 10 = 1.58 × 10¹¹ M. Option B is [H]; C is neutral; D is Kw.
Q4.
A nurse must administer 0.25 mg of digoxin. The available concentration is 0.5 mg/2 mL.
How many mL should the nurse administer?
A. 0.5 mL B. 1 mL
C. 1.5 mL D. 2 mL
Correct: B - 1 mL
Rationale:Using the formula: Desired / Have × Quantity = 0.25 mg / 0.5 mg × 2 mL = 1 mL.
Option A (0.5 mL) would give 0.125 mg; C (1.5 mL) gives 0.375 mg; D (2 mL) gives 0.5 mg.
Q5.
Read the following passage: 'Recent studies indicate that intermittent fasting may improve
metabolic health by enhancing insulin sensitivity and promoting autophagy. However,
these effects appear to be dependent on the timing of food intake relative to circadian
rhythms, and long-term adherence remains a challenge for many individuals.' Which of
the following conclusions is best supported by the passage?
A. Intermittent fasting universally improves B. The benefits of intermittent fasting are
insulin sensitivity independent of circadian timing
C. Circadian rhythms may influence the D. Long-term adherence is the primary
metabolic effects of intermittent fasting determinant of metabolic benefits
Correct: C - Circadian rhythms may influence the metabolic effects of intermittent fasting
Rationale:The passage explicitly states that the effects 'appear to be dependent on the timing
of food intake relative to circadian rhythms,' supporting C. A is too absolute ('may improve'), B
contradicts the passage, and D is not stated as primary.
Q6.
Choose the word that best completes the sentence: 'The patient's condition was ____;
despite aggressive treatment, his vital signs continued to deteriorate.'
A. Morbid B. Malignant
C. Refractory D. Acute
Correct: C - Refractory
Page 4
