SECURE SOFTWARE DESIGN
WGU D487 SECURE SW DESIGN A+
2026/2027
Official-Style Practice Examination — A+ Verified Content
A+ 6 100%
QUESTIONS EXAM DOMAINS RATIONALES
VERIFIED COVERED INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
■ Secure SDLC & Security Methods
■ Requirements, Risk Assessment & Privacy
■ Threat Modeling Frameworks
■ Architecture & Secure Design Principles
■ Security Testing, Analysis & Tools
■ Implementation, DevSecOps, Compliance & Post-Release
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
Passing Score: 75% | 1 Mark per Question | Professional / Analysis-Application Level
STUVIAACTUALEXAM Page 1
, SECTION 1: Secure SDLC & Security Methods
Q1. A development team historically added security only after coding was finished. The security architect now requires security
activities in every phase from requirements through release. What principle is the architect enforcing?
A. Security by design across the full SDLC
B. Penetration testing only at the end
C. Security as an afterthought
D. Relying solely on firewalls
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Security by design integrates controls and activities into every SDLC phase rather than treating security as a final gate.
Q2. A project manager asks why the team must perform threat modeling during design instead of waiting for the penetration-test
phase. Which explanation best justifies early threat modeling?
A. Identifying threats early allows cheaper and more effective mitigations before implementation
B. Penetration tests automatically discover all design flaws
C. Threat modeling replaces the need for any testing
D. Threat modeling is only useful after code is written
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Early threat modeling surfaces design-level risks when changes are least expensive and most effective.
Q3. An organization is mapping its existing processes to a formal Security Development Lifecycle. Which activity is
characteristically performed in the earliest SDL phase (Security Assessment / A1)?
A. Creating the product risk profile and identifying applicable regulations
B. Ship-gate policy compliance analysis only
C. Post-release vulnerability disclosure handling
D. Final penetration testing of the shipping product
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A1 focuses on risk profiling, regulatory mapping, and planning security milestones before architecture and coding begin.
Q4. A company wants to benchmark its software-security program against peer organizations rather than against a prescribed
maturity model. Which framework is designed primarily as an observational benchmarking tool?
A. OWASP SAMM
B. BSIMM (Building Security In Maturity Model)
C. STRIDE
D. PASTA
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: BSIMM is an observational model derived from real-world programs; SAMM is a prescriptive maturity model.
Q5. During an Agile sprint, the team must still satisfy security gates that traditionally belonged to a Waterfall SDL. What practice
best adapts security activities to short iterations?
A. Embed lightweight security activities and automated checks into each sprint and the continuous pipeline
B. Defer all security work until the final release sprint
C. Eliminate threat modeling because sprints are too short
D. Run a full formal SDL only once per year
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: DevSecOps and Agile-adapted SDL embed incremental, automated security activities inside each iteration rather than postponing them.
Q6. A security lead is explaining Defense-in-Depth to developers. Which statement correctly captures the principle?
A. A single strong control is always sufficient
B. Multiple independent layers of controls reduce the chance that a single failure leads to compromise
C. Defense-in-Depth applies only to network firewalls
D. Encryption alone satisfies Defense-in-Depth
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Defense-in-Depth relies on layered, complementary controls so that the failure of one layer does not expose the system.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM Page 2
, Q7. The architecture phase of the SDL has just finished. Which deliverable is most characteristic of that phase?
A. Updated threat-model artifacts and security design review results
B. Post-release incident response playbook only
C. Final ship-decision checklist
D. Customer support knowledge base
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Architecture-phase outputs typically include refined threat models and design-security reviews that guide subsequent implementation.
Q8. A firm is choosing between OpenSAMM and BSIMM to improve its software-security capability. What is a primary distinction
between the two?
A. OpenSAMM is prescriptive and provides a roadmap; BSIMM is descriptive and used for benchmarking
B. Both are purely observational and prescribe nothing
C. BSIMM can only be used by Microsoft
D. OpenSAMM ignores governance activities
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: OpenSAMM (SAMM) offers a prescriptive path; BSIMM measures what organizations actually do and is used for comparison.
Q9. A release manager is preparing the final security sign-off before shipping. Which SDL phase is primarily concerned with this
gate?
A. A5 Ship / Release
B. A1 Security Assessment
C. A2 Architecture only
D. Post-release support exclusively
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Ship phase contains policy-compliance analysis and final security gates that authorize release.
Q10. An organization has adopted a Secure Development Lifecycle but still experiences late discovery of design flaws. Which
practice is most likely missing?
A. Performing threat modeling and architecture security analysis early
B. Eliminating all code reviews
C. Waiting until production to run static analysis
D. Relying only on end-user bug reports
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Early architecture analysis and threat modeling are intended to catch design issues before coding locks them in.
Q11. A team is documenting security activities that must occur at each SDL gate. What is the primary purpose of these security
gates?
A. To slow development artificially
B. To ensure defined security criteria are met before the project advances to the next phase
C. To replace all testing activities
D. To assign blame for defects
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Security gates enforce minimum security criteria at phase transitions, preventing high-risk work from progressing unchecked.
Q12. Developers argue that security requirements slow feature delivery. The security architect responds that integrating security
early actually reduces overall cost. Which evidence best supports that claim?
A. Security activities have no cost impact
B. Fixing defects in production is typically far more expensive than addressing them in design or coding
C. Only penetration testing affects cost
D. Late fixes are always cheaper
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Industry data consistently show that the cost of remediation rises sharply the later a defect is discovered.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM Page 3
WGU D487 SECURE SW DESIGN A+
2026/2027
Official-Style Practice Examination — A+ Verified Content
A+ 6 100%
QUESTIONS EXAM DOMAINS RATIONALES
VERIFIED COVERED INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
■ Secure SDLC & Security Methods
■ Requirements, Risk Assessment & Privacy
■ Threat Modeling Frameworks
■ Architecture & Secure Design Principles
■ Security Testing, Analysis & Tools
■ Implementation, DevSecOps, Compliance & Post-Release
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
Passing Score: 75% | 1 Mark per Question | Professional / Analysis-Application Level
STUVIAACTUALEXAM Page 1
, SECTION 1: Secure SDLC & Security Methods
Q1. A development team historically added security only after coding was finished. The security architect now requires security
activities in every phase from requirements through release. What principle is the architect enforcing?
A. Security by design across the full SDLC
B. Penetration testing only at the end
C. Security as an afterthought
D. Relying solely on firewalls
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Security by design integrates controls and activities into every SDLC phase rather than treating security as a final gate.
Q2. A project manager asks why the team must perform threat modeling during design instead of waiting for the penetration-test
phase. Which explanation best justifies early threat modeling?
A. Identifying threats early allows cheaper and more effective mitigations before implementation
B. Penetration tests automatically discover all design flaws
C. Threat modeling replaces the need for any testing
D. Threat modeling is only useful after code is written
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Early threat modeling surfaces design-level risks when changes are least expensive and most effective.
Q3. An organization is mapping its existing processes to a formal Security Development Lifecycle. Which activity is
characteristically performed in the earliest SDL phase (Security Assessment / A1)?
A. Creating the product risk profile and identifying applicable regulations
B. Ship-gate policy compliance analysis only
C. Post-release vulnerability disclosure handling
D. Final penetration testing of the shipping product
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A1 focuses on risk profiling, regulatory mapping, and planning security milestones before architecture and coding begin.
Q4. A company wants to benchmark its software-security program against peer organizations rather than against a prescribed
maturity model. Which framework is designed primarily as an observational benchmarking tool?
A. OWASP SAMM
B. BSIMM (Building Security In Maturity Model)
C. STRIDE
D. PASTA
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: BSIMM is an observational model derived from real-world programs; SAMM is a prescriptive maturity model.
Q5. During an Agile sprint, the team must still satisfy security gates that traditionally belonged to a Waterfall SDL. What practice
best adapts security activities to short iterations?
A. Embed lightweight security activities and automated checks into each sprint and the continuous pipeline
B. Defer all security work until the final release sprint
C. Eliminate threat modeling because sprints are too short
D. Run a full formal SDL only once per year
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: DevSecOps and Agile-adapted SDL embed incremental, automated security activities inside each iteration rather than postponing them.
Q6. A security lead is explaining Defense-in-Depth to developers. Which statement correctly captures the principle?
A. A single strong control is always sufficient
B. Multiple independent layers of controls reduce the chance that a single failure leads to compromise
C. Defense-in-Depth applies only to network firewalls
D. Encryption alone satisfies Defense-in-Depth
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Defense-in-Depth relies on layered, complementary controls so that the failure of one layer does not expose the system.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM Page 2
, Q7. The architecture phase of the SDL has just finished. Which deliverable is most characteristic of that phase?
A. Updated threat-model artifacts and security design review results
B. Post-release incident response playbook only
C. Final ship-decision checklist
D. Customer support knowledge base
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Architecture-phase outputs typically include refined threat models and design-security reviews that guide subsequent implementation.
Q8. A firm is choosing between OpenSAMM and BSIMM to improve its software-security capability. What is a primary distinction
between the two?
A. OpenSAMM is prescriptive and provides a roadmap; BSIMM is descriptive and used for benchmarking
B. Both are purely observational and prescribe nothing
C. BSIMM can only be used by Microsoft
D. OpenSAMM ignores governance activities
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: OpenSAMM (SAMM) offers a prescriptive path; BSIMM measures what organizations actually do and is used for comparison.
Q9. A release manager is preparing the final security sign-off before shipping. Which SDL phase is primarily concerned with this
gate?
A. A5 Ship / Release
B. A1 Security Assessment
C. A2 Architecture only
D. Post-release support exclusively
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Ship phase contains policy-compliance analysis and final security gates that authorize release.
Q10. An organization has adopted a Secure Development Lifecycle but still experiences late discovery of design flaws. Which
practice is most likely missing?
A. Performing threat modeling and architecture security analysis early
B. Eliminating all code reviews
C. Waiting until production to run static analysis
D. Relying only on end-user bug reports
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Early architecture analysis and threat modeling are intended to catch design issues before coding locks them in.
Q11. A team is documenting security activities that must occur at each SDL gate. What is the primary purpose of these security
gates?
A. To slow development artificially
B. To ensure defined security criteria are met before the project advances to the next phase
C. To replace all testing activities
D. To assign blame for defects
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Security gates enforce minimum security criteria at phase transitions, preventing high-risk work from progressing unchecked.
Q12. Developers argue that security requirements slow feature delivery. The security architect responds that integrating security
early actually reduces overall cost. Which evidence best supports that claim?
A. Security activities have no cost impact
B. Fixing defects in production is typically far more expensive than addressing them in design or coding
C. Only penetration testing affects cost
D. Late fixes are always cheaper
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Industry data consistently show that the cost of remediation rises sharply the later a defect is discovered.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM Page 3
