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Examen

Advanced Pharmacotherapeutics (NURS 615) - Exam 4 Prep 2026 |Maryville UPDATED ACTUAL Questions and CORRECT Answers

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Advanced Pharmacotherapeutics (NURS 615) - Exam 4 Prep 2026 |Maryville UPDATED ACTUAL Questions and CORRECT Answers

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Advanced Pharmacotherapeutics (NURS 615) - Exam 4
Prep 2026 |Maryville UPDATED ACTUAL Questions and
CORRECT Answers




1. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed a drug that is

primarily excreted renally. If the patient’s Creatinine Clearance (CrCl) decreases

from 60 mL/min to 30 mL/min, how should the maintenance dose generally be

adjusted?


A. The dose should be doubled to ensure efficacy.


B. No change is needed as the liver will compensate.


C. The dose should be reduced or the dosing interval lengthened.


D. The drug should be discontinued immediately.



Answer: C


Rationale: When renal clearance decreases, the half-life of renally excreted drugs

increases, leading to potential toxicity; therefore, the dose must be reduced or the interval

increased to maintain therapeutic levels.

,2. Which of the following mechanisms best explains why ACE inhibitors may

cause a persistent dry cough in some patients?


A. Accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs.


B. Direct irritation of the bronchial mucosa.


C. Induction of bronchospasm via beta-2 blockade.


D. Increase in pulmonary capillary wedge pressure.



Answer: A


Rationale: ACE inhibitors block the enzyme that breaks down bradykinin and substance P;

the accumulation of these inflammatory mediators in the respiratory tract triggers the

cough reflex.


3. When initiating Levothyroxine for an elderly patient with underlying coronary

artery disease, what is the most appropriate starting strategy?


A. Start with a high dose to achieve euthyroid status rapidly.


B. Wait until the patient is asymptomatic before starting treatment.


C. Administer via IV to bypass first-pass metabolism.


D. Start with a low dose (e.g., 12.5-25 mcg) and titrate slowly.



Answer: D

,Rationale: In elderly patients or those with cardiac disease, rapid replacement of thyroid

hormone can increase metabolic demand and precipitate angina or myocardial infarction; a

‘start low, go slow’ approach is required.


4. A patient taking Warfarin (Coumadin) is started on Amiodarone for atrial

fibrillation. What effect should the provider anticipate?


A. A decrease in INR, requiring an increase in Warfarin dose.


B. Amiodarone has no effect on Warfarin metabolism.


C. An increase in INR, requiring a decrease in Warfarin dose.


D. The risk of thrombosis increases significantly.



Answer: C


Rationale: Amiodarone inhibits CYP2C9, the primary enzyme responsible for metabolizing

S-warfarin. This leads to increased warfarin levels and a higher INR, necessitating a

proactive dose reduction of warfarin (often by 30-50%).

, 5. What is the black box warning associated with all SSRIs and SNRIs,

particularly in children, adolescents, and young adults?


A. Increased risk of cardiac arrhythmias.


B. Increased risk of suicidal ideation and behavior.


C. Potential for permanent liver failure.


D. High risk of Stevens-Johnson Syndrome.



Answer: B


Rationale: The FDA requires a black box warning on all antidepressants regarding the

increased risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in patients under age 24 during the initial

stages of treatment.


6. Which laboratory value is most critical to monitor in a patient receiving

Spironolactone (Aldactone) alongside an ACE inhibitor?


A. Serum Potassium


B. Serum Sodium


C. Serum Calcium


D. Serum Magnesium



Answer: A

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Subido en
21 de agosto de 2026
Número de páginas
34
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2026/2027
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