NCLEX RN Pharmacological Parenteral
Therapies Exam 3 Questions And
Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A Instant Download
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1. A client receiving IV morphine becomes difficult to arouse and has
a respiratory rate of 8/min. Which medication should the nurse
prepare to administer?
A. Flumazenil
B. Atropine
C. Naloxone
D. Protamine sulfate
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-
induced respiratory depression.
2. A nurse is administering digoxin to an adult client. Which finding
requires the nurse to withhold the medication?
A. Blood pressure 128/76 mm Hg
B. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
C. Apical pulse 52/min
D. Respiratory rate 18/min
Rationale: Digoxin should generally be withheld when the adult apical
pulse is below 60/min.
3. Which laboratory value is most important for a client receiving
warfarin therapy?
A. aPTT
, B. Platelet count
C. INR
D. Serum sodium
Rationale: INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin.
4. A client taking lisinopril reports swelling of the lips and tongue.
What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer the next dose with food
B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
C. Hold the medication and assess the airway
D. Encourage oral fluids
Rationale: Facial and tongue swelling can indicate angioedema, which
can rapidly compromise the airway.
5. Which medication is used to reverse the effects of heparin?
A. Vitamin K
B. Naloxone
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Acetylcysteine
Rationale: Protamine sulfate binds to and neutralizes heparin.
6. A client receiving furosemide should be monitored closely for
which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypermagnesemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypernatremia
Rationale: Furosemide promotes potassium excretion and can cause
hypokalemia.
, 7. Which statement by a client taking levothyroxine indicates correct
understanding?
A. "I will take it after dinner."
B. "I will stop it when I feel better."
C. "I will take it in the morning on an empty stomach."
D. "I will take it only when I feel tired."
Rationale: Levothyroxine is usually taken consistently on an empty
stomach, preferably in the morning.
8. A client taking potassium chloride orally should be instructed to:
A. Crush extended-release tablets
B. Take it without fluids
C. Take it with or after food and adequate fluid
D. Take it only when muscle cramps occur
Rationale: Potassium can irritate the gastrointestinal tract and should
be taken with food and fluids.
9. Which adverse effect is most concerning in a client receiving
gentamicin?
A. Constipation
B. Increased appetite
C. Hearing changes
D. Mild headache
Rationale: Gentamicin can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity.
10. A client taking metformin is scheduled for a procedure
involving iodinated contrast. What should the nurse anticipate?
A. Increasing the metformin dose
B. Giving potassium
C. Temporarily withholding metformin as prescribed
D. Administering insulin immediately
, Rationale: Metformin may need to be temporarily withheld around
iodinated contrast exposure because of the risk of renal complications
and lactic acidosis.
11. Which medication should the nurse question if prescribed
for a client with severe hypokalemia?
A. Potassium chloride
B. Spironolactone
C. Furosemide
D. Potassium-rich fluids
Rationale: Furosemide increases potassium excretion and can worsen
hypokalemia.
12. A client receiving vancomycin develops flushing and itching
during the infusion. Which action is appropriate?
A. Increase the infusion rate
B. Stop or slow the infusion and notify the provider
C. Administer another dose immediately
D. Encourage ambulation
Rationale: Flushing and itching can occur with vancomycin infusion
reactions, particularly when infused too rapidly.
13. Which medication is commonly used as an antidote for
acetaminophen toxicity?
A. Vitamin K
B. Naloxone
C. Acetylcysteine
D. Protamine sulfate
Rationale: Acetylcysteine replenishes glutathione and reduces liver
injury from acetaminophen toxicity.
Therapies Exam 3 Questions And
Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A Instant Download
1. A client receiving IV morphine becomes difficult to arouse and has
a respiratory rate of 8/min. Which medication should the nurse
prepare to administer?
A. Flumazenil
B. Atropine
C. Naloxone
D. Protamine sulfate
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-
induced respiratory depression.
2. A nurse is administering digoxin to an adult client. Which finding
requires the nurse to withhold the medication?
A. Blood pressure 128/76 mm Hg
B. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
C. Apical pulse 52/min
D. Respiratory rate 18/min
Rationale: Digoxin should generally be withheld when the adult apical
pulse is below 60/min.
3. Which laboratory value is most important for a client receiving
warfarin therapy?
A. aPTT
, B. Platelet count
C. INR
D. Serum sodium
Rationale: INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin.
4. A client taking lisinopril reports swelling of the lips and tongue.
What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer the next dose with food
B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
C. Hold the medication and assess the airway
D. Encourage oral fluids
Rationale: Facial and tongue swelling can indicate angioedema, which
can rapidly compromise the airway.
5. Which medication is used to reverse the effects of heparin?
A. Vitamin K
B. Naloxone
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Acetylcysteine
Rationale: Protamine sulfate binds to and neutralizes heparin.
6. A client receiving furosemide should be monitored closely for
which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypermagnesemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypernatremia
Rationale: Furosemide promotes potassium excretion and can cause
hypokalemia.
, 7. Which statement by a client taking levothyroxine indicates correct
understanding?
A. "I will take it after dinner."
B. "I will stop it when I feel better."
C. "I will take it in the morning on an empty stomach."
D. "I will take it only when I feel tired."
Rationale: Levothyroxine is usually taken consistently on an empty
stomach, preferably in the morning.
8. A client taking potassium chloride orally should be instructed to:
A. Crush extended-release tablets
B. Take it without fluids
C. Take it with or after food and adequate fluid
D. Take it only when muscle cramps occur
Rationale: Potassium can irritate the gastrointestinal tract and should
be taken with food and fluids.
9. Which adverse effect is most concerning in a client receiving
gentamicin?
A. Constipation
B. Increased appetite
C. Hearing changes
D. Mild headache
Rationale: Gentamicin can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity.
10. A client taking metformin is scheduled for a procedure
involving iodinated contrast. What should the nurse anticipate?
A. Increasing the metformin dose
B. Giving potassium
C. Temporarily withholding metformin as prescribed
D. Administering insulin immediately
, Rationale: Metformin may need to be temporarily withheld around
iodinated contrast exposure because of the risk of renal complications
and lactic acidosis.
11. Which medication should the nurse question if prescribed
for a client with severe hypokalemia?
A. Potassium chloride
B. Spironolactone
C. Furosemide
D. Potassium-rich fluids
Rationale: Furosemide increases potassium excretion and can worsen
hypokalemia.
12. A client receiving vancomycin develops flushing and itching
during the infusion. Which action is appropriate?
A. Increase the infusion rate
B. Stop or slow the infusion and notify the provider
C. Administer another dose immediately
D. Encourage ambulation
Rationale: Flushing and itching can occur with vancomycin infusion
reactions, particularly when infused too rapidly.
13. Which medication is commonly used as an antidote for
acetaminophen toxicity?
A. Vitamin K
B. Naloxone
C. Acetylcysteine
D. Protamine sulfate
Rationale: Acetylcysteine replenishes glutathione and reduces liver
injury from acetaminophen toxicity.
