NCLEX RN Pharmacological Parenteral
Therapies Exam 2 Questions And
Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A Instant Download
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1. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to an adult client. Which
assessment finding requires the nurse to hold the medication and
notify the provider?
A. Blood pressure 128/74 mm Hg
B. Respiratory rate 18/min
C. Apical pulse 54/min
D. Temperature 37°C (98.6°F)
Answer: C. Apical pulse 54/min
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. The medication is generally
withheld when the adult apical pulse is below 60/min and the provider
is notified.
2. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 5.2. What is the nurse's priority
action?
A. Administer the scheduled dose
B. Encourage foods high in vitamin K
C. Hold the warfarin and notify the provider
D. Administer aspirin
Answer: C. Hold the warfarin and notify the provider
,Rationale: An INR of 5.2 indicates excessive anticoagulation and an
increased risk of bleeding. Warfarin should be held and the provider
notified.
3. Which statement by a client taking levothyroxine indicates correct
understanding?
A. "I will take it with my breakfast."
B. "I will take it on an empty stomach in the morning."
C. "I will stop it when I feel better."
D. "I should take it only when I have symptoms."
Answer: B. "I will take it on an empty stomach in the morning."
Rationale: Levothyroxine is best absorbed when taken consistently on
an empty stomach, usually 30–60 minutes before breakfast.
4. A client receiving IV potassium chloride reports burning at the IV site.
What should the nurse do first?
A. Increase the infusion rate
B. Assess the IV site
C. Apply a heating pad
D. Continue the infusion
Answer: B. Assess the IV site
Rationale: Potassium chloride can cause severe tissue injury if
infiltration occurs. The nurse should immediately assess the IV site.
5. Which medication is the antidote for opioid-induced respiratory
depression?
,A. Flumazenil
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Naloxone
D. Vitamin K
Answer: C. Naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-
induced respiratory and central nervous system depression.
6. A nurse is administering insulin lispro. When should the medication
generally be given?
A. At bedtime
B. 30 minutes before meals
C. When the meal is available or shortly before eating
D. Two hours after meals
Answer: C. When the meal is available or shortly before eating
Rationale: Lispro is rapid-acting insulin. It begins working quickly, so it
should be administered close to mealtime to reduce hypoglycemia risk.
7. Which finding is most concerning in a client receiving morphine?
A. Respiratory rate 8/min
B. Mild nausea
C. Constipation
D. Drowsiness
Answer: A. Respiratory rate 8/min
Rationale: Respiratory depression is the most serious adverse effect of
opioids and requires immediate intervention.
, 8. A client taking an ACE inhibitor develops swelling of the lips and
tongue. What is the priority action?
A. Give the next dose with food
B. Notify the provider immediately
C. Encourage oral fluids
D. Place the client supine
Answer: B. Notify the provider immediately
Rationale: Facial, lip, or tongue swelling may indicate angioedema, a
potentially life-threatening reaction that can compromise the airway.
9. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor for a client
receiving heparin therapy?
A. INR
B. aPTT
C. Hemoglobin A1c
D. Serum sodium
Answer: B. aPTT
Rationale: Unfractionated heparin therapy is commonly monitored
using the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
10. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
A. Oral multivitamin
B. IV antibiotic due now for sepsis
C. Stool softener
D. Routine calcium supplement
Therapies Exam 2 Questions And
Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A Instant Download
1. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to an adult client. Which
assessment finding requires the nurse to hold the medication and
notify the provider?
A. Blood pressure 128/74 mm Hg
B. Respiratory rate 18/min
C. Apical pulse 54/min
D. Temperature 37°C (98.6°F)
Answer: C. Apical pulse 54/min
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. The medication is generally
withheld when the adult apical pulse is below 60/min and the provider
is notified.
2. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 5.2. What is the nurse's priority
action?
A. Administer the scheduled dose
B. Encourage foods high in vitamin K
C. Hold the warfarin and notify the provider
D. Administer aspirin
Answer: C. Hold the warfarin and notify the provider
,Rationale: An INR of 5.2 indicates excessive anticoagulation and an
increased risk of bleeding. Warfarin should be held and the provider
notified.
3. Which statement by a client taking levothyroxine indicates correct
understanding?
A. "I will take it with my breakfast."
B. "I will take it on an empty stomach in the morning."
C. "I will stop it when I feel better."
D. "I should take it only when I have symptoms."
Answer: B. "I will take it on an empty stomach in the morning."
Rationale: Levothyroxine is best absorbed when taken consistently on
an empty stomach, usually 30–60 minutes before breakfast.
4. A client receiving IV potassium chloride reports burning at the IV site.
What should the nurse do first?
A. Increase the infusion rate
B. Assess the IV site
C. Apply a heating pad
D. Continue the infusion
Answer: B. Assess the IV site
Rationale: Potassium chloride can cause severe tissue injury if
infiltration occurs. The nurse should immediately assess the IV site.
5. Which medication is the antidote for opioid-induced respiratory
depression?
,A. Flumazenil
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Naloxone
D. Vitamin K
Answer: C. Naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-
induced respiratory and central nervous system depression.
6. A nurse is administering insulin lispro. When should the medication
generally be given?
A. At bedtime
B. 30 minutes before meals
C. When the meal is available or shortly before eating
D. Two hours after meals
Answer: C. When the meal is available or shortly before eating
Rationale: Lispro is rapid-acting insulin. It begins working quickly, so it
should be administered close to mealtime to reduce hypoglycemia risk.
7. Which finding is most concerning in a client receiving morphine?
A. Respiratory rate 8/min
B. Mild nausea
C. Constipation
D. Drowsiness
Answer: A. Respiratory rate 8/min
Rationale: Respiratory depression is the most serious adverse effect of
opioids and requires immediate intervention.
, 8. A client taking an ACE inhibitor develops swelling of the lips and
tongue. What is the priority action?
A. Give the next dose with food
B. Notify the provider immediately
C. Encourage oral fluids
D. Place the client supine
Answer: B. Notify the provider immediately
Rationale: Facial, lip, or tongue swelling may indicate angioedema, a
potentially life-threatening reaction that can compromise the airway.
9. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor for a client
receiving heparin therapy?
A. INR
B. aPTT
C. Hemoglobin A1c
D. Serum sodium
Answer: B. aPTT
Rationale: Unfractionated heparin therapy is commonly monitored
using the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
10. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
A. Oral multivitamin
B. IV antibiotic due now for sepsis
C. Stool softener
D. Routine calcium supplement
