NCLEX RN Comprehensive Practice
Exam 010 Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A Instant Download
Pdf
1. A nurse is assessing a client with hypovolemic shock. Which
finding is most concerning?
A. Warm, flushed skin
B. Bounding pulse
C. Weak, rapid pulse
D. Bradycardia
Rationale: A weak, rapid pulse is a compensatory response to decreased
circulating volume and is characteristic of hypovolemic shock.
2. Which assessment finding is expected in a client with left-sided
heart failure?
A. Peripheral edema only
B. Crackles in the lungs
C. Jugular vein distention only
D. Enlarged liver
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion,
producing crackles, dyspnea, and orthopnea.
3. A client taking warfarin should be taught to report which finding
immediately?
,A. Mild hunger
B. Increased appetite
C. Black, tarry stools
D. Occasional sneezing
Rationale: Black, tarry stools may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, an
important complication of anticoagulant therapy.
4. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor for a client
receiving heparin?
A. Hemoglobin A1c
B. INR only
C. aPTT
D. Serum calcium
Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time is commonly used
to monitor unfractionated heparin therapy.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus is confused, diaphoretic, and
trembling. What should the nurse do first?
A. Administer insulin
B. Encourage exercise
C. Check the blood glucose level
D. Restrict fluids
Rationale: These findings suggest hypoglycemia. Blood glucose should
be assessed promptly so treatment can be initiated.
6. Which finding is most characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis?
A. Bradycardia
B. Kussmaul respirations
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Severe alkalosis
,Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid respirations that
compensate for metabolic acidosis associated with diabetic
ketoacidosis.
7. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving
oxygen. Which prescription is most appropriate?
A. Oxygen at maximum concentration
B. Low-flow oxygen as prescribed
C. No oxygen under any circumstance
D. Oxygen only during meals
Rationale: Controlled low-flow oxygen is often used in COPD while
carefully monitoring oxygenation and respiratory status.
8. Which position best promotes breathing in a client experiencing
dyspnea?
A. Supine
B. Trendelenburg
C. High-Fowler's
D. Prone
Rationale: High-Fowler's positioning maximizes lung expansion and
decreases the work of breathing.
9. Which finding indicates that a client may be experiencing
increased intracranial pressure?
A. Increased appetite
B. Decreased level of consciousness
C. Increased bowel sounds
D. Warm extremities
, Rationale: A decreasing level of consciousness is an early and important
indicator of neurologic deterioration and increased intracranial
pressure.
10. A client suddenly develops facial drooping and weakness of
the right arm. What is the nurse's priority?
A. Give oral fluids
B. Place the client in isolation
C. Activate the stroke response and determine the time symptoms
began
D. Encourage ambulation
Rationale: Rapid stroke evaluation is essential because time-sensitive
treatment may reduce neurologic injury.
11. Which finding is most concerning in a client with chest pain?
A. Pain rated 2/10
B. Chest pressure with diaphoresis and dyspnea
C. Pain relieved by repositioning
D. Mild tenderness over the ribs
Rationale: Chest pressure accompanied by diaphoresis and dyspnea is
highly concerning for acute coronary syndrome.
12. Before administering digoxin, which assessment is most
important?
A. Temperature
B. Respiratory rate
C. Apical pulse
D. Bowel sounds
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. The apical pulse should be
assessed before administration.
Exam 010 Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A Instant Download
1. A nurse is assessing a client with hypovolemic shock. Which
finding is most concerning?
A. Warm, flushed skin
B. Bounding pulse
C. Weak, rapid pulse
D. Bradycardia
Rationale: A weak, rapid pulse is a compensatory response to decreased
circulating volume and is characteristic of hypovolemic shock.
2. Which assessment finding is expected in a client with left-sided
heart failure?
A. Peripheral edema only
B. Crackles in the lungs
C. Jugular vein distention only
D. Enlarged liver
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion,
producing crackles, dyspnea, and orthopnea.
3. A client taking warfarin should be taught to report which finding
immediately?
,A. Mild hunger
B. Increased appetite
C. Black, tarry stools
D. Occasional sneezing
Rationale: Black, tarry stools may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, an
important complication of anticoagulant therapy.
4. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor for a client
receiving heparin?
A. Hemoglobin A1c
B. INR only
C. aPTT
D. Serum calcium
Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time is commonly used
to monitor unfractionated heparin therapy.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus is confused, diaphoretic, and
trembling. What should the nurse do first?
A. Administer insulin
B. Encourage exercise
C. Check the blood glucose level
D. Restrict fluids
Rationale: These findings suggest hypoglycemia. Blood glucose should
be assessed promptly so treatment can be initiated.
6. Which finding is most characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis?
A. Bradycardia
B. Kussmaul respirations
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Severe alkalosis
,Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid respirations that
compensate for metabolic acidosis associated with diabetic
ketoacidosis.
7. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving
oxygen. Which prescription is most appropriate?
A. Oxygen at maximum concentration
B. Low-flow oxygen as prescribed
C. No oxygen under any circumstance
D. Oxygen only during meals
Rationale: Controlled low-flow oxygen is often used in COPD while
carefully monitoring oxygenation and respiratory status.
8. Which position best promotes breathing in a client experiencing
dyspnea?
A. Supine
B. Trendelenburg
C. High-Fowler's
D. Prone
Rationale: High-Fowler's positioning maximizes lung expansion and
decreases the work of breathing.
9. Which finding indicates that a client may be experiencing
increased intracranial pressure?
A. Increased appetite
B. Decreased level of consciousness
C. Increased bowel sounds
D. Warm extremities
, Rationale: A decreasing level of consciousness is an early and important
indicator of neurologic deterioration and increased intracranial
pressure.
10. A client suddenly develops facial drooping and weakness of
the right arm. What is the nurse's priority?
A. Give oral fluids
B. Place the client in isolation
C. Activate the stroke response and determine the time symptoms
began
D. Encourage ambulation
Rationale: Rapid stroke evaluation is essential because time-sensitive
treatment may reduce neurologic injury.
11. Which finding is most concerning in a client with chest pain?
A. Pain rated 2/10
B. Chest pressure with diaphoresis and dyspnea
C. Pain relieved by repositioning
D. Mild tenderness over the ribs
Rationale: Chest pressure accompanied by diaphoresis and dyspnea is
highly concerning for acute coronary syndrome.
12. Before administering digoxin, which assessment is most
important?
A. Temperature
B. Respiratory rate
C. Apical pulse
D. Bowel sounds
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. The apical pulse should be
assessed before administration.
