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NUR 352 Final | Q&A | 2026/2027 | Fundamental Concepts in Nursing | ASU | Graded A+

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This document helps you master the NUR 352 Fundamental Concepts in Nursing final exam at Arizona State University via targeted Q&A with detailed rationales. It covers patient safety protocols (RACE, PASS, fall precautions, restraints), infection prevention and control across the chain of infection, comprehensive health assessment and vital signs interpretation, effective communication frameworks including ISBARR, medication administration and the rights of medication safety, delegation principles and prioritization of nursing care, and nursing interventions for acute and chronic conditions. Engineered to maximize retention and sharpen critical understanding, this test pack simplifies complex content, saving preparation time and helping you secure an A on your Final Exam Assessment.

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NUR 352 Final exam | Q&A | 2026/2027 | Fundamental Concepts in
Nursing | ASU | Graded A+

1. The nursing process is a structured framework for clinical decision-making.
Which sequence correctly represents the five steps?

A) Assessment, Planning, Diagnosis, Implementation, Evaluation

B) Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation

C) Diagnosis, Assessment, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation

D) Planning, Assessment, Diagnosis, Implementation, Evaluation



Correct Answer: Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation,
Evaluation



Rationale: The nursing process is a five-step sequential process: Assessment,
Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation. This systematic
approach provides a framework for delivering holistic, client-centered care.



2. A client's vital signs are: temperature 99.8°F (37.7°C), pulse 88 bpm,
respirations 18/min, blood pressure 118/76 mmHg, and SpO2 96%. Which
finding is outside the normal adult range?

A) Temperature

B) Pulse

C) Respirations

D) SpO2



Correct Answer: Temperature



Rationale: The normal adult temperature range is 96.8-100.4°F (36-38°C).
While 99.8°F is technically within normal limits, it is elevated compared to
baseline and the most notable deviation among the options. Pulse (60-100),
respirations (12-20), and SpO2 (95-100%) are all within normal limits.

,3. The absence of disease-producing organisms is known as:

A) Sepsis

B) Asepsis

C) Sterilization

D) Disinfection



Correct Answer: Asepsis



Rationale: Asepsis is the absence of disease-producing (pathogenic)
organisms. Sepsis is a life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a
dysregulated host response to infection. Sterilization destroys all
microorganisms, while disinfection reduces the number of pathogens.



4. Which component is part of the "chain of infection"?

A) Infectious agent

B) Reservoir

C) Portal of exit

D) All of the above



Correct Answer: All of the above



Rationale: The chain of infection consists of six components: infectious
agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and
susceptible host. Breaking any link in the chain prevents the spread of
infection.



5. A client is diagnosed with a healthcare-associated infection (HAI). Which of
the following is a major type of HAI?

,A) Central line-associated bloodstream infection

B) Surgical site infection

C) Catheter-associated urinary tract infection

D) All of the above



Correct Answer: All of the above



Rationale: The four major types of HAIs are central line-associated
bloodstream infections (CLABSIs), surgical site infections (SSIs), catheter-
associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs), and ventilator-associated
pneumonia (VAP).



6. Which level of precaution is applied to all patients, regardless of their
diagnosis?

A) Contact precautions

B) Droplet precautions

C) Standard precautions

D) Airborne precautions



Correct Answer: Standard precautions



Rationale: Standard precautions are the baseline infection prevention
practices that apply to all patients in all healthcare settings. They include
hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment (PPE), and safe injection
practices.



7. A client is placed on airborne precautions. Which type of PPE is essential
for anyone entering the room?

A) Surgical mask

, B) N95 respirator

C) Gown and gloves

D) Eye protection



Correct Answer: N95 respirator



Rationale: Airborne precautions require an N95 respirator (or higher level)
because the infectious agents are transmitted via small particles that can
remain suspended in the air. Contact and droplet precautions require
different PPE.



8. Which type of precaution is used for a client with tuberculosis?

A) Contact precautions

B) Droplet precautions

C) Airborne precautions

D) Standard precautions only



Correct Answer: Airborne precautions



Rationale: Tuberculosis (TB) is transmitted via airborne particles and requires
airborne precautions, including a negative pressure room and an N95
respirator.



9. An infection that occurs when there are more cases than normal within a
specific geographic location is called:

A) Endemic

B) Epidemic

C) Pandemic

D) Sporadic

Información del documento

Subido en
18 de agosto de 2026
Número de páginas
47
Escrito en
2026/2027
Tipo
Examen
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