NURS 190 PHYSICAL ASSESSMENT
WEEK 13 QUIZ: GENITOURINARY,
BREAST, AND RECTAL ASSESSMENT
1. During a female genitourinary examination, the nurse notes a bulge in the posterior vaginal
wall when the patient is asked to bear down. This finding is most consistent with:
A. Cystocele
B. Uterine prolapse
C. Rectocele
D. Urethral caruncle
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: A rectocele is the prolapse of the rectum into the posterior wall
of the vagina, often becoming visible when intra-abdominal pressure increases.
2. When assessing the male genitalia, the nurse observes that the urethral meatus is located
on the dorsal (upper) side of the glans penis. What is the correct medical term for this?
A. Hypospadias
B. Paraphimosis
C. Phimosis
,D. Epispadias
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Epispadias is a rare condition where the meatus is on the dorsal
side of the penis. Hypospadias is on the ventral side.
3. The nurse is performing a breast exam on a 55-year-old female. Which finding is most
suggestive of lymphatic obstruction associated with breast cancer?
A. Peau d’orange appearance of the skin
B. Bilateral nipple discharge during palpation
C. A soft, mobile, non-tender mass
D. Inframammary ridge at the base of the breast
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Peau d’orange (orange-peel skin) is caused by edema from
lymphatic obstruction and is a classic sign of advanced breast cancer.
4. A male patient presents with sudden, severe pain in the left testicle, nausea, and a high-
riding testis. The cremasteric reflex is absent. This represents a medical emergency known as:
A. Testicular torsion
B. Epididymitis
C. Varicocele
D. Hydrocele
, Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Testicular torsion involves the twisting of the spermatic cord,
cutting off blood supply. It is an emergency characterized by sudden pain and absence of
the cremasteric reflex.
5. Which axillary lymph node group is most frequently responsible for the primary drainage
of the breast?
A. Lateral axillary nodes
B. Subscapular (posterior) nodes
C. Central axillary nodes
D. Pectoral (anterior) nodes
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The central axillary nodes receive lymph from the other three
groups (lateral, posterior, anterior) and are the most common site for palpable nodes.
6. During a rectal examination, the nurse notes a red, moist, protrusion from the anus while
the patient strains. This is likely:
A. Internal hemorrhoid
B. Anorectal fistula
C. Anal fissure
D. Rectal prolapse
WEEK 13 QUIZ: GENITOURINARY,
BREAST, AND RECTAL ASSESSMENT
1. During a female genitourinary examination, the nurse notes a bulge in the posterior vaginal
wall when the patient is asked to bear down. This finding is most consistent with:
A. Cystocele
B. Uterine prolapse
C. Rectocele
D. Urethral caruncle
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: A rectocele is the prolapse of the rectum into the posterior wall
of the vagina, often becoming visible when intra-abdominal pressure increases.
2. When assessing the male genitalia, the nurse observes that the urethral meatus is located
on the dorsal (upper) side of the glans penis. What is the correct medical term for this?
A. Hypospadias
B. Paraphimosis
C. Phimosis
,D. Epispadias
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Epispadias is a rare condition where the meatus is on the dorsal
side of the penis. Hypospadias is on the ventral side.
3. The nurse is performing a breast exam on a 55-year-old female. Which finding is most
suggestive of lymphatic obstruction associated with breast cancer?
A. Peau d’orange appearance of the skin
B. Bilateral nipple discharge during palpation
C. A soft, mobile, non-tender mass
D. Inframammary ridge at the base of the breast
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Peau d’orange (orange-peel skin) is caused by edema from
lymphatic obstruction and is a classic sign of advanced breast cancer.
4. A male patient presents with sudden, severe pain in the left testicle, nausea, and a high-
riding testis. The cremasteric reflex is absent. This represents a medical emergency known as:
A. Testicular torsion
B. Epididymitis
C. Varicocele
D. Hydrocele
, Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Testicular torsion involves the twisting of the spermatic cord,
cutting off blood supply. It is an emergency characterized by sudden pain and absence of
the cremasteric reflex.
5. Which axillary lymph node group is most frequently responsible for the primary drainage
of the breast?
A. Lateral axillary nodes
B. Subscapular (posterior) nodes
C. Central axillary nodes
D. Pectoral (anterior) nodes
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The central axillary nodes receive lymph from the other three
groups (lateral, posterior, anterior) and are the most common site for palpable nodes.
6. During a rectal examination, the nurse notes a red, moist, protrusion from the anus while
the patient strains. This is likely:
A. Internal hemorrhoid
B. Anorectal fistula
C. Anal fissure
D. Rectal prolapse
