EMT NREMT Final Exam Prep 2026/2027 | Complete
300 Practice Test Bank | A+ Graded
1. A 45-year-old male is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. CPR is in progress. An AED is applied
and advises a shock. What is the first action after delivering the shock?
A) Check for a pulse
B) Resume CPR for 2 minutes
C) Reanalyze the rhythm
D) Administer epinephrine
Answer B: Resume CPR for 2 minutes
Rationale: After defibrillation, immediately resume CPR for 2 minutes before checking rhythm/pulse.
2. A 6-year-old child is choking and unable to speak. The EMT should perform:
A) Abdominal thrusts
B) Abdominal thrusts (Heimlich)
C) Back blows
D) Finger sweep
Answer B: Abdominal thrusts (Heimlich)
Rationale: For a conscious choking child, abdominal thrusts are indicated. Back blows are for infants.
3. A 55-year-old with chest pain has an SpO2 of 88% on room air. What is the most appropriate
oxygen delivery device?
A) Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
B) Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
C) Simple face mask at 6 L/min
D) BVM with oxygen
,Answer B: Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
Rationale: Severe hypoxia (<90%) requires high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather to increase SpO2.
4. A patient with a severe allergic reaction develops stridor and hypotension. Which medication
should the EMT administer first?
A) Diphenhydramine
B) Epinephrine IM
C) Albuterol nebulizer
D) Methylprednisolone
Answer B: Epinephrine IM
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis to reverse bronchospasm and
hypotension.
5. In a trauma patient with a head injury, which sign is most concerning for increased intracranial
pressure?
A) Hypertension and bradycardia
B) Hypertension and bradycardia (Cushing's triad)
C) Hypotension and tachycardia
D) Tachypnea
Answer B: Hypertension and bradycardia (Cushing's triad)
Rationale: Cushing's triad (hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations) indicates increased ICP.
6. A 70-year-old with a history of COPD is breathing 8 breaths/min and is lethargic. The SpO2 is
90% on a non-rebreather. What should the EMT do?
A) Increase oxygen flow
B) Assist ventilations with a BVM
C) Place the patient in recovery position
D) Administer albuterol
,Answer B: Assist ventilations with a BVM
Rationale: Bradypnea with lethargy indicates respiratory failure; ventilatory support with BVM is needed.
7. Which of the following is a sign of a tension pneumothorax?
A) Absent breath sounds on the affected side
B) Tracheal deviation to the opposite side
C) Subcutaneous emphysema
D) Hypotension
Answer B: Tracheal deviation to the opposite side
Rationale: Tracheal deviation away from the affected side is a late sign of tension pneumothorax.
8. A 34-week pregnant patient is having a seizure. What is the EMT's priority?
A) Administer magnesium sulfate
B) Protect the airway and place the patient in left lateral recumbent position
C) Transport immediately without interventions
D) Administer oxygen via non-rebreather
Answer B: Protect the airway and place the patient in left lateral recumbent position
Rationale: Seizure in pregnancy: protect airway, position left lateral to prevent supine hypotension, and
transport.
9. A patient with a crush injury to the pelvis has a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg and a heart rate
of 130 bpm. What type of shock is this?
A) Cardiogenic shock
B) Hypovolemic shock
C) Neurogenic shock
D) Septic shock
Answer B: Hypovolemic shock
Rationale: Pelvic fractures can cause significant internal bleeding, leading to hypovolemic shock.
, 10. A 2-year-old child has a fever, stridor, and drooling. The child is sitting upright in a tripod
position. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Croup
B) Epiglottitis
C) Bronchiolitis
D) Asthma
Answer B: Epiglottitis
Rationale: Stridor, drooling, and tripod position in a febrile child suggest epiglottitis – a medical
emergency.
11. A patient is in cardiac arrest and the AED advises "no shock advised." What should the EMT do
next?
A) Check for a pulse
B) Continue CPR for 2 minutes
C) Reanalyze the rhythm
D) Administer epinephrine
Answer B: Continue CPR for 2 minutes
Rationale: If no shock advised, immediately resume CPR for 2 minutes before reanalyzing.
12. A 35-year-old male has a stabbing wound to the right chest. He is dyspneic and has diminished
breath sounds on the right. What should the EMT do?
A) Apply an occlusive dressing
B) Apply a vented occlusive dressing
C) Perform needle decompression
D) Place patient in supine position
Answer B: Apply a vented occlusive dressing
300 Practice Test Bank | A+ Graded
1. A 45-year-old male is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. CPR is in progress. An AED is applied
and advises a shock. What is the first action after delivering the shock?
A) Check for a pulse
B) Resume CPR for 2 minutes
C) Reanalyze the rhythm
D) Administer epinephrine
Answer B: Resume CPR for 2 minutes
Rationale: After defibrillation, immediately resume CPR for 2 minutes before checking rhythm/pulse.
2. A 6-year-old child is choking and unable to speak. The EMT should perform:
A) Abdominal thrusts
B) Abdominal thrusts (Heimlich)
C) Back blows
D) Finger sweep
Answer B: Abdominal thrusts (Heimlich)
Rationale: For a conscious choking child, abdominal thrusts are indicated. Back blows are for infants.
3. A 55-year-old with chest pain has an SpO2 of 88% on room air. What is the most appropriate
oxygen delivery device?
A) Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
B) Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
C) Simple face mask at 6 L/min
D) BVM with oxygen
,Answer B: Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
Rationale: Severe hypoxia (<90%) requires high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather to increase SpO2.
4. A patient with a severe allergic reaction develops stridor and hypotension. Which medication
should the EMT administer first?
A) Diphenhydramine
B) Epinephrine IM
C) Albuterol nebulizer
D) Methylprednisolone
Answer B: Epinephrine IM
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis to reverse bronchospasm and
hypotension.
5. In a trauma patient with a head injury, which sign is most concerning for increased intracranial
pressure?
A) Hypertension and bradycardia
B) Hypertension and bradycardia (Cushing's triad)
C) Hypotension and tachycardia
D) Tachypnea
Answer B: Hypertension and bradycardia (Cushing's triad)
Rationale: Cushing's triad (hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations) indicates increased ICP.
6. A 70-year-old with a history of COPD is breathing 8 breaths/min and is lethargic. The SpO2 is
90% on a non-rebreather. What should the EMT do?
A) Increase oxygen flow
B) Assist ventilations with a BVM
C) Place the patient in recovery position
D) Administer albuterol
,Answer B: Assist ventilations with a BVM
Rationale: Bradypnea with lethargy indicates respiratory failure; ventilatory support with BVM is needed.
7. Which of the following is a sign of a tension pneumothorax?
A) Absent breath sounds on the affected side
B) Tracheal deviation to the opposite side
C) Subcutaneous emphysema
D) Hypotension
Answer B: Tracheal deviation to the opposite side
Rationale: Tracheal deviation away from the affected side is a late sign of tension pneumothorax.
8. A 34-week pregnant patient is having a seizure. What is the EMT's priority?
A) Administer magnesium sulfate
B) Protect the airway and place the patient in left lateral recumbent position
C) Transport immediately without interventions
D) Administer oxygen via non-rebreather
Answer B: Protect the airway and place the patient in left lateral recumbent position
Rationale: Seizure in pregnancy: protect airway, position left lateral to prevent supine hypotension, and
transport.
9. A patient with a crush injury to the pelvis has a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg and a heart rate
of 130 bpm. What type of shock is this?
A) Cardiogenic shock
B) Hypovolemic shock
C) Neurogenic shock
D) Septic shock
Answer B: Hypovolemic shock
Rationale: Pelvic fractures can cause significant internal bleeding, leading to hypovolemic shock.
, 10. A 2-year-old child has a fever, stridor, and drooling. The child is sitting upright in a tripod
position. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Croup
B) Epiglottitis
C) Bronchiolitis
D) Asthma
Answer B: Epiglottitis
Rationale: Stridor, drooling, and tripod position in a febrile child suggest epiglottitis – a medical
emergency.
11. A patient is in cardiac arrest and the AED advises "no shock advised." What should the EMT do
next?
A) Check for a pulse
B) Continue CPR for 2 minutes
C) Reanalyze the rhythm
D) Administer epinephrine
Answer B: Continue CPR for 2 minutes
Rationale: If no shock advised, immediately resume CPR for 2 minutes before reanalyzing.
12. A 35-year-old male has a stabbing wound to the right chest. He is dyspneic and has diminished
breath sounds on the right. What should the EMT do?
A) Apply an occlusive dressing
B) Apply a vented occlusive dressing
C) Perform needle decompression
D) Place patient in supine position
Answer B: Apply a vented occlusive dressing
