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NSG 3160 Newest Exam Preparation With Complete
Questions And Correct Answers With Rationales
Already Graded A+Brand New Version!!
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes
mellitus. Which of the following findings is consistent with this
diagnosis?
A) Increased serum C-peptide
B) Presence of islet cell antibodies
C) High body mass index
D) Strong family history of type 2 diabetes
Answer: B) Presence of islet cell antibodies
Explanation: Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by autoimmune
destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to absolute insulin
deficiency. The presence of islet cell antibodies, including glutamic acid
decarboxylase antibodies and insulin autoantibodies, is a hallmark of
the autoimmune process. Increased serum C-peptide would indicate
endogenous insulin production, which is absent in type 1 diabetes. High
BMI and a family history of type 2 diabetes are more consistent with
type 2 diabetes mellitus.
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Question 2
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is prescribed
oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The nurse
understands that the primary goal of oxygen therapy in this patient is
to:
A) Maintain an arterial oxygen saturation above 95%
B) Achieve a partial pressure of arterial oxygen greater than 80 mmHg
C) Provide sufficient oxygen to prevent tissue hypoxia while avoiding
suppression of the hypoxic drive
D) Reduce the work of breathing by decreasing airway resistance
Answer: C) Provide sufficient oxygen to prevent tissue hypoxia while
avoiding suppression of the hypoxic drive
Explanation: In patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the
respiratory drive may be dependent on hypoxic stimulation rather than
hypercapnia. Oxygen therapy should be titrated to maintain oxygen
saturation between 88% and 92% to prevent tissue hypoxia while
avoiding the risk of suppressing the hypoxic drive, which can lead to
respiratory depression and carbon dioxide retention. Maintaining
saturation above 95% or achieving high partial pressure of arterial
oxygen is not recommended due to the risk of hyperoxia-induced
hypoventilation.
Question 3
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A nurse is assessing a patient who is experiencing acute respiratory
distress syndrome. Which of the following arterial blood gas findings is
most consistent with the early phase of this condition?
A) pH 7.48, PaCO2 30 mmHg, HCO3 22 mEq/L
B) pH 7.32, PaCO2 55 mmHg, HCO3 28 mEq/L
C) pH 7.38, PaCO2 40 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
D) pH 7.25, PaCO2 60 mmHg, HCO3 26 mEq/L
Answer: A) pH 7.48, PaCO2 30 mmHg, HCO3 22 mEq/L
Explanation: In the early phase of acute respiratory distress syndrome,
the patient typically exhibits respiratory alkalosis due to
hyperventilation and tachypnea in response to hypoxemia and stiff
lungs. The arterial blood gas findings of pH 7.48, PaCO2 30 mmHg, and
HCO3 22 mEq/L indicate a primary respiratory alkalosis with partial
renal compensation. As the condition progresses, respiratory acidosis
may develop due to fatigue and inadequate ventilation.
Question 4
A nurse is preparing to administer a loop diuretic to a patient with
heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which of the following
adverse effects?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hyponatremia
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Hypercalcemia
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Answer: B) Hyponatremia
Explanation: Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, act on the ascending
loop of Henle to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption, leading to
diuresis. A common adverse effect is hyponatremia due to excessive
sodium loss. Additionally, loop diuretics can cause hypokalemia,
hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, and dehydration. Hyperkalemia is not
expected; rather, potassium levels decrease. Hypoglycemia and
hypercalcemia are not typical adverse effects of loop diuretics.
Question 5
A patient with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin
therapy. The nurse understands that the primary purpose of this
therapy is to:
A) Prevent hyperkalemia
B) Correct anemia
C) Lower blood pressure
D) Reduce proteinuria
Answer: B) Correct anemia
Explanation: Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidneys that
stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. In chronic
kidney disease, erythropoietin production is diminished, leading to
anemia. Erythropoietin therapy is administered to stimulate
erythropoiesis, correct anemia, and reduce the need for blood
NSG 3160 Newest Exam Preparation With Complete
Questions And Correct Answers With Rationales
Already Graded A+Brand New Version!!
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes
mellitus. Which of the following findings is consistent with this
diagnosis?
A) Increased serum C-peptide
B) Presence of islet cell antibodies
C) High body mass index
D) Strong family history of type 2 diabetes
Answer: B) Presence of islet cell antibodies
Explanation: Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by autoimmune
destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to absolute insulin
deficiency. The presence of islet cell antibodies, including glutamic acid
decarboxylase antibodies and insulin autoantibodies, is a hallmark of
the autoimmune process. Increased serum C-peptide would indicate
endogenous insulin production, which is absent in type 1 diabetes. High
BMI and a family history of type 2 diabetes are more consistent with
type 2 diabetes mellitus.
,2|Page
Question 2
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is prescribed
oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The nurse
understands that the primary goal of oxygen therapy in this patient is
to:
A) Maintain an arterial oxygen saturation above 95%
B) Achieve a partial pressure of arterial oxygen greater than 80 mmHg
C) Provide sufficient oxygen to prevent tissue hypoxia while avoiding
suppression of the hypoxic drive
D) Reduce the work of breathing by decreasing airway resistance
Answer: C) Provide sufficient oxygen to prevent tissue hypoxia while
avoiding suppression of the hypoxic drive
Explanation: In patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the
respiratory drive may be dependent on hypoxic stimulation rather than
hypercapnia. Oxygen therapy should be titrated to maintain oxygen
saturation between 88% and 92% to prevent tissue hypoxia while
avoiding the risk of suppressing the hypoxic drive, which can lead to
respiratory depression and carbon dioxide retention. Maintaining
saturation above 95% or achieving high partial pressure of arterial
oxygen is not recommended due to the risk of hyperoxia-induced
hypoventilation.
Question 3
,3|Page
A nurse is assessing a patient who is experiencing acute respiratory
distress syndrome. Which of the following arterial blood gas findings is
most consistent with the early phase of this condition?
A) pH 7.48, PaCO2 30 mmHg, HCO3 22 mEq/L
B) pH 7.32, PaCO2 55 mmHg, HCO3 28 mEq/L
C) pH 7.38, PaCO2 40 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
D) pH 7.25, PaCO2 60 mmHg, HCO3 26 mEq/L
Answer: A) pH 7.48, PaCO2 30 mmHg, HCO3 22 mEq/L
Explanation: In the early phase of acute respiratory distress syndrome,
the patient typically exhibits respiratory alkalosis due to
hyperventilation and tachypnea in response to hypoxemia and stiff
lungs. The arterial blood gas findings of pH 7.48, PaCO2 30 mmHg, and
HCO3 22 mEq/L indicate a primary respiratory alkalosis with partial
renal compensation. As the condition progresses, respiratory acidosis
may develop due to fatigue and inadequate ventilation.
Question 4
A nurse is preparing to administer a loop diuretic to a patient with
heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which of the following
adverse effects?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hyponatremia
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Hypercalcemia
, 4|Page
Answer: B) Hyponatremia
Explanation: Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, act on the ascending
loop of Henle to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption, leading to
diuresis. A common adverse effect is hyponatremia due to excessive
sodium loss. Additionally, loop diuretics can cause hypokalemia,
hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, and dehydration. Hyperkalemia is not
expected; rather, potassium levels decrease. Hypoglycemia and
hypercalcemia are not typical adverse effects of loop diuretics.
Question 5
A patient with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin
therapy. The nurse understands that the primary purpose of this
therapy is to:
A) Prevent hyperkalemia
B) Correct anemia
C) Lower blood pressure
D) Reduce proteinuria
Answer: B) Correct anemia
Explanation: Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidneys that
stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. In chronic
kidney disease, erythropoietin production is diminished, leading to
anemia. Erythropoietin therapy is administered to stimulate
erythropoiesis, correct anemia, and reduce the need for blood
