ATI RN
CONCEPTS LEVEL 3
EXAM QUESTIONS
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE SCENARIOS)
Answers with detailed Rationale
What You’ll Get:
• 100 CONCEPTS LEVEL 3 EXAM Style questions
• Questions with Answers
• quick review
• Printable, easy-to-study PDF
Not affiliated with ATI, VATI or NCLEX. For study purposes only.
, Preview Questions Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of any
study resources, feel free to Message me."
,1. A nurse is creating a postoperative plan of care for a client who has a chest tube
drainage system following a lobectomy for lung adenocarcinoma. Which of the
following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
A. Maintain the drainage system at the level of the chest
B. Empty the collection chamber when drainage reaches the tube base
C. Strip the chest tube every hour
D. Clamp the tubing briefly when checking for an air leak
Correct Answer: B. Empty the collection chamber when drainage reaches the tube
base
Rationale: The collection chamber should be emptied when drainage reaches the tube
base to maintain accurate measurement and prevent occlusion. The drainage system
should be maintained below the level of the chest (not at) to facilitate gravity drainage.
Stripping the chest tube is contraindicated as it creates excessive negative pressure and
can damage lung tissue. Clamping the tubing is contraindicated unless changing the
system or assessing for air leaks per protocol.
2. A nurse is assessing an infant who has coarctation of the aorta. Which of the
following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?
A. Weak femoral pulses
B. Sunken fontanels
C. Respiratory rate 30/min
D. Weight loss
Correct Answer: A. Weak femoral pulses
Rationale: Coarctation of the aorta is a narrowing of the aorta, typically distal to the left
subclavian artery. This results in decreased blood flow to the lower extremities,
manifesting as weak or absent femoral pulses, cool lower extremities, and blood
pressure discrepancy between upper and lower extremities (higher in arms). Sunken
fontanels indicate dehydration, RR 30/min is normal for infants, and weight loss is not
characteristic.
,3. A home health nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing an exacerbation
of ulcerative colitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Encourage the client to increase intake of dairy products
B. Recommend that the client consume cold foods
C. Remind the client to limit fluid intake
D. Instruct the client to eat a low-residue diet
Correct Answer: D. Instruct the client to eat a low-residue diet
Rationale: During an ulcerative colitis exacerbation, a low-residue (low-fiber) diet
reduces bowel irritation and frequency of stools. Dairy products may increase diarrhea
due to lactose intolerance. Cold foods can increase peristalsis. Fluid intake should be
increased to prevent dehydration from diarrhea, not limited.
4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of an antepartum client who is at 32
weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings
indicates the client is experiencing HELLP syndrome?
A. Creatinine 0.6 mg/dL
B. Uric acid 5.8 mg/dL
C. BUN 20 mg/dL
D. Hgb 9 g/dL
Correct Answer: D. Hgb 9 g/dL
Rationale: HELLP syndrome is characterized by Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and
Low Platelet count. Hemolysis causes anemia, resulting in low hemoglobin (normal >11
g/dL in pregnancy). The other values are within normal or expected ranges for
pregnancy. Key findings in HELLP include: platelets <100,000, elevated LDH, elevated
bilirubin, and elevated liver enzymes.
5. A nurse is providing preconception counseling about folic acid for a client who
is trying to conceive. Which of the following client responses indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
,A. "Folic acid will reduce my baby's risk of developing heart disease."
B. "Folic acid will increase my baby's healthy bone growth."
C. "Folic acid will decrease the risk of neural tube defects."
D. "Folic acid will increase my milk production."
Correct Answer: C. "Folic acid will decrease the risk of neural tube defects."
Rationale: Folic acid supplementation (400-800 mcg daily) before conception and
during early pregnancy significantly reduces the risk of neural tube defects (spina
bifida, anencephaly). The neural tube closes within the first 28 days of pregnancy, often
before a woman knows she is pregnant, making preconception supplementation critical.
6. A nurse is teaching a client who experiences anaphylaxis from bee stings about
an epinephrine autoinjector. Which of the following client statements indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
A. "I should shake the device if the medication appears brown."
B. "I will refrigerate the injection device when I am at home."
C. "I will inject the medication in the top of my thigh."
D. "I should not massage the injection site after administration."
Correct Answer: C. "I will inject the medication in the top of my thigh."
Rationale: Epinephrine autoinjectors should be administered into the anterolateral
thigh (vastus lateralis muscle) for rapid absorption. The medication should be clear; if
brown/discolored, it should be replaced. Refrigeration is not required (room
temperature storage). Massaging the site is acceptable and may enhance absorption.
7. A nurse is teaching a client who has sickle cell disease about preventing a sickle
cell crisis. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
A. "You should not receive the influenza vaccine."
B. "You should avoid temperature extremes."
C. "You should engage in high-impact exercise twice per week."
D. "You should drink at least 2 liters of fluids each day."
Correct Answer: D. "You should drink at least 2 liters of fluids each day."
,Rationale: Adequate hydration (2-3 liters daily) is essential to prevent sickling by
reducing blood viscosity and maintaining perfusion. Temperature extremes (both hot
and cold) should be avoided as they can trigger crisis. High-impact exercise should be
avoided due to risk of dehydration and tissue hypoxia. Annual influenza vaccine is
recommended due to functional asplenia and infection risk.
8. A nurse is caring for a 19-year-old client who is dying following a motor vehicle
crash. Which of the following individuals should the nurse approach first about
considering organ donation?
A. The client's parent
B. The client's spouse
C. The client's older sibling
D. The client's grandparent
Correct Answer: A. The client's parent
Rationale: For clients under 18 (or legal age of majority), parents are the legal next of
kin and decision-makers for organ donation. At 19, this client is a legal adult; however, if
unmarried and no advance directive exists, parents typically remain next of kin. The
question tests understanding of hierarchy: spouse (if married) → adult children →
parents → siblings.
9. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 15 weeks of
gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an
indication that the client's fetus might have Down syndrome?
A. A positive Kleihauer-Betke test
B. An elevated amniotic fluid index
C. A decreased alpha-fetoprotein level
D. A positive Coombs test
Correct Answer: C. A decreased alpha-fetoprotein level
Rationale: Low maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) is associated with Down
syndrome (trisomy 21) and Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18). Elevated MSAFP suggests
,neural tube defects. Kleihauer-Betke test detects fetal-maternal hemorrhage. Elevated
amniotic fluid (polyhydramnios) suggests GI obstruction. Coombs test detects
antibodies.
10. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of multiple substance use
disorders. The client is currently experiencing anger, difficulty concentrating, and
increased appetite. The nurse should suspect the client is withdrawing from which
of the following substances?
A. Phencyclidine
B. Nicotine
C. Inhalants
D. Heroin
Correct Answer: B. Nicotine
Rationale: Nicotine withdrawal manifests with irritability/anger, difficulty
concentrating, increased appetite/weight gain, anxiety, restlessness, and depressed
mood. Heroin withdrawal causes flu-like symptoms (lacrimation, rhinorrhea, yawning,
muscle aches). PCP withdrawal may include depression. Inhalant withdrawal includes
tremors, irritability, and sleep disturbances.
11. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is newly diagnosed
with epilepsy. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding
of the instructions?
A. "I can stop the medication once I am seizure-free for 1 month."
B. "I will take a daily tub bath rather than a shower."
C. "I can drink up to two glasses of wine with my evening meal."
D. "I will walk on the treadmill at the gym rather than walking outside alone."
Correct Answer: D. "I will walk on the treadmill at the gym rather than walking
outside alone."
Rationale: Safety is paramount for clients with epilepsy. Walking on a treadmill in a
supervised gym environment is safer than walking alone outside (risk of injury if seizure
,occurs). Antiepileptic drugs should never be discontinued abruptly or without provider
supervision. Tub baths are contraindicated due to drowning risk (showers preferred).
Alcohol can lower seizure threshold and interact with medications.
12. A nurse is caring for a client following an open radical prostatectomy for
adenocarcinoma of the prostate. Which of the following actions should the nurse
take?
A. Administer a rectal suppository if the client reports constipation
B. Cleanse the client's urinary meatus with povidone-iodine solution
C. Ensure the drainage tube remains securely taped to the client's thigh
D. Remind the client that Kegel exercises prevent erectile dysfunction
Correct Answer: C. Ensure the drainage tube remains securely taped to the client's
thigh
Rationale: After radical prostatectomy, a urinary catheter is in place. Securing the
tubing to the thigh prevents traction on the catheter and urethral trauma. Rectal
suppositories are contraindicated post-prostatectomy due to risk of bleeding and
disruption of the surgical site. Povidone-iodine is too harsh for routine meatal care (soap
and water preferred). Kegel exercises help with urinary continence, not erectile
dysfunction.
13. A nurse is assessing a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the
following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?
A. Subcutaneous nodules
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Weight gain
D. Abdominal pain
Correct Answer: A. Subcutaneous nodules
Rationale: Rheumatoid nodules (subcutaneous, firm, non-tender) are characteristic
extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis, typically over extensor surfaces.
Thrombocytopenia is not typical (thrombocytosis may occur with inflammation). Weight
,loss (not gain) is common due to chronic inflammation. Abdominal pain is not a primary
manifestation.
14. A nurse is caring for a newly admitted client who has obsessive-compulsive
disorder and frequently performs ritualistic behaviors. The nurse should expect
which of the following client responses if ritualistic behavior is restricted?
A. Expresses relief from not having to perform the ritual
B. Reports auditory hallucinations
C. Experiences panic-level anxiety
D. Replaces it with a different ritualistic behavior
Correct Answer: C. Experiences panic-level anxiety
Rationale: For clients with OCD, ritualistic behaviors (compulsions) serve to reduce
anxiety associated with obsessive thoughts. Abrupt restriction without therapeutic
intervention causes severe anxiety, potentially reaching panic levels. Gradual exposure
and response prevention (ERP) is the evidence-based approach. Auditory hallucinations
are not characteristic of OCD.
15. A nurse is teaching a group of clients who have anorexia nervosa about
cognitive-behavioral therapy. Which of the following client statements indicates
an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will identify distorted thoughts about my body image."
B. "I will consider the negative effects of my eating disorder."
C. "I will imagine a peaceful scene when I feel anxious about food."
D. "I will get to attend a unit activity if I eat all of my meal."
Correct Answer: A. "I will identify distorted thoughts about my body image."
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) focuses on identifying and challenging
cognitive distortions (e.g., "I must be thin to be valued") that drive disordered eating
behaviors. This is distinct from motivational interviewing (B), guided imagery (C), or
behavioral reinforcement/token economy (D).
, 16. A nurse is providing teaching about physiological changes that occur during
the dying process to the family of a client who has a terminal illness. Which of the
following manifestations should the nurse include?
A. Periods of apnea
B. Increased thirst
C. Decreased secretions
D. Flushing of the extremities
Correct Answer: C. Decreased secretions
Rationale: As death approaches, decreased oral intake and metabolic changes lead
to reduced secretions, resulting in dry mucous membranes. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
(periods of apnea) occur, but decreased thirst (not increased) is expected. Extremities
become mottled and cool (not flushed) due to peripheral vasoconstriction.
17. A nurse is preparing an educational program about sexual assault for a group
of college students. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
A. Survivors of sexual assault exhibit similar psychological symptoms to one another
B. Survivors of sexual assault do not benefit from psychotherapy
C. Survivors of sexual assault are generally married living in metropolitan areas
D. Survivors of sexual assault often know their assailant
Correct Answer: D. Survivors of sexual assault often know their assailant
Rationale: Approximately 80% of sexual assault survivors know their perpetrator
(acquaintance, friend, intimate partner, family member). Responses to trauma vary
widely (not similar). Psychotherapy is highly beneficial. Sexual assault occurs across all
demographics regardless of marital status or location.
18. A nurse is providing teaching about home care to the family of a client who
has dementia. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
A. "Weigh the client once per month."
B. "Disguise exit doors in his home with posters."
CONCEPTS LEVEL 3
EXAM QUESTIONS
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE SCENARIOS)
Answers with detailed Rationale
What You’ll Get:
• 100 CONCEPTS LEVEL 3 EXAM Style questions
• Questions with Answers
• quick review
• Printable, easy-to-study PDF
Not affiliated with ATI, VATI or NCLEX. For study purposes only.
, Preview Questions Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of any
study resources, feel free to Message me."
,1. A nurse is creating a postoperative plan of care for a client who has a chest tube
drainage system following a lobectomy for lung adenocarcinoma. Which of the
following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
A. Maintain the drainage system at the level of the chest
B. Empty the collection chamber when drainage reaches the tube base
C. Strip the chest tube every hour
D. Clamp the tubing briefly when checking for an air leak
Correct Answer: B. Empty the collection chamber when drainage reaches the tube
base
Rationale: The collection chamber should be emptied when drainage reaches the tube
base to maintain accurate measurement and prevent occlusion. The drainage system
should be maintained below the level of the chest (not at) to facilitate gravity drainage.
Stripping the chest tube is contraindicated as it creates excessive negative pressure and
can damage lung tissue. Clamping the tubing is contraindicated unless changing the
system or assessing for air leaks per protocol.
2. A nurse is assessing an infant who has coarctation of the aorta. Which of the
following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?
A. Weak femoral pulses
B. Sunken fontanels
C. Respiratory rate 30/min
D. Weight loss
Correct Answer: A. Weak femoral pulses
Rationale: Coarctation of the aorta is a narrowing of the aorta, typically distal to the left
subclavian artery. This results in decreased blood flow to the lower extremities,
manifesting as weak or absent femoral pulses, cool lower extremities, and blood
pressure discrepancy between upper and lower extremities (higher in arms). Sunken
fontanels indicate dehydration, RR 30/min is normal for infants, and weight loss is not
characteristic.
,3. A home health nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing an exacerbation
of ulcerative colitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Encourage the client to increase intake of dairy products
B. Recommend that the client consume cold foods
C. Remind the client to limit fluid intake
D. Instruct the client to eat a low-residue diet
Correct Answer: D. Instruct the client to eat a low-residue diet
Rationale: During an ulcerative colitis exacerbation, a low-residue (low-fiber) diet
reduces bowel irritation and frequency of stools. Dairy products may increase diarrhea
due to lactose intolerance. Cold foods can increase peristalsis. Fluid intake should be
increased to prevent dehydration from diarrhea, not limited.
4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of an antepartum client who is at 32
weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings
indicates the client is experiencing HELLP syndrome?
A. Creatinine 0.6 mg/dL
B. Uric acid 5.8 mg/dL
C. BUN 20 mg/dL
D. Hgb 9 g/dL
Correct Answer: D. Hgb 9 g/dL
Rationale: HELLP syndrome is characterized by Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and
Low Platelet count. Hemolysis causes anemia, resulting in low hemoglobin (normal >11
g/dL in pregnancy). The other values are within normal or expected ranges for
pregnancy. Key findings in HELLP include: platelets <100,000, elevated LDH, elevated
bilirubin, and elevated liver enzymes.
5. A nurse is providing preconception counseling about folic acid for a client who
is trying to conceive. Which of the following client responses indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
,A. "Folic acid will reduce my baby's risk of developing heart disease."
B. "Folic acid will increase my baby's healthy bone growth."
C. "Folic acid will decrease the risk of neural tube defects."
D. "Folic acid will increase my milk production."
Correct Answer: C. "Folic acid will decrease the risk of neural tube defects."
Rationale: Folic acid supplementation (400-800 mcg daily) before conception and
during early pregnancy significantly reduces the risk of neural tube defects (spina
bifida, anencephaly). The neural tube closes within the first 28 days of pregnancy, often
before a woman knows she is pregnant, making preconception supplementation critical.
6. A nurse is teaching a client who experiences anaphylaxis from bee stings about
an epinephrine autoinjector. Which of the following client statements indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
A. "I should shake the device if the medication appears brown."
B. "I will refrigerate the injection device when I am at home."
C. "I will inject the medication in the top of my thigh."
D. "I should not massage the injection site after administration."
Correct Answer: C. "I will inject the medication in the top of my thigh."
Rationale: Epinephrine autoinjectors should be administered into the anterolateral
thigh (vastus lateralis muscle) for rapid absorption. The medication should be clear; if
brown/discolored, it should be replaced. Refrigeration is not required (room
temperature storage). Massaging the site is acceptable and may enhance absorption.
7. A nurse is teaching a client who has sickle cell disease about preventing a sickle
cell crisis. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
A. "You should not receive the influenza vaccine."
B. "You should avoid temperature extremes."
C. "You should engage in high-impact exercise twice per week."
D. "You should drink at least 2 liters of fluids each day."
Correct Answer: D. "You should drink at least 2 liters of fluids each day."
,Rationale: Adequate hydration (2-3 liters daily) is essential to prevent sickling by
reducing blood viscosity and maintaining perfusion. Temperature extremes (both hot
and cold) should be avoided as they can trigger crisis. High-impact exercise should be
avoided due to risk of dehydration and tissue hypoxia. Annual influenza vaccine is
recommended due to functional asplenia and infection risk.
8. A nurse is caring for a 19-year-old client who is dying following a motor vehicle
crash. Which of the following individuals should the nurse approach first about
considering organ donation?
A. The client's parent
B. The client's spouse
C. The client's older sibling
D. The client's grandparent
Correct Answer: A. The client's parent
Rationale: For clients under 18 (or legal age of majority), parents are the legal next of
kin and decision-makers for organ donation. At 19, this client is a legal adult; however, if
unmarried and no advance directive exists, parents typically remain next of kin. The
question tests understanding of hierarchy: spouse (if married) → adult children →
parents → siblings.
9. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 15 weeks of
gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an
indication that the client's fetus might have Down syndrome?
A. A positive Kleihauer-Betke test
B. An elevated amniotic fluid index
C. A decreased alpha-fetoprotein level
D. A positive Coombs test
Correct Answer: C. A decreased alpha-fetoprotein level
Rationale: Low maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) is associated with Down
syndrome (trisomy 21) and Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18). Elevated MSAFP suggests
,neural tube defects. Kleihauer-Betke test detects fetal-maternal hemorrhage. Elevated
amniotic fluid (polyhydramnios) suggests GI obstruction. Coombs test detects
antibodies.
10. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of multiple substance use
disorders. The client is currently experiencing anger, difficulty concentrating, and
increased appetite. The nurse should suspect the client is withdrawing from which
of the following substances?
A. Phencyclidine
B. Nicotine
C. Inhalants
D. Heroin
Correct Answer: B. Nicotine
Rationale: Nicotine withdrawal manifests with irritability/anger, difficulty
concentrating, increased appetite/weight gain, anxiety, restlessness, and depressed
mood. Heroin withdrawal causes flu-like symptoms (lacrimation, rhinorrhea, yawning,
muscle aches). PCP withdrawal may include depression. Inhalant withdrawal includes
tremors, irritability, and sleep disturbances.
11. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is newly diagnosed
with epilepsy. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding
of the instructions?
A. "I can stop the medication once I am seizure-free for 1 month."
B. "I will take a daily tub bath rather than a shower."
C. "I can drink up to two glasses of wine with my evening meal."
D. "I will walk on the treadmill at the gym rather than walking outside alone."
Correct Answer: D. "I will walk on the treadmill at the gym rather than walking
outside alone."
Rationale: Safety is paramount for clients with epilepsy. Walking on a treadmill in a
supervised gym environment is safer than walking alone outside (risk of injury if seizure
,occurs). Antiepileptic drugs should never be discontinued abruptly or without provider
supervision. Tub baths are contraindicated due to drowning risk (showers preferred).
Alcohol can lower seizure threshold and interact with medications.
12. A nurse is caring for a client following an open radical prostatectomy for
adenocarcinoma of the prostate. Which of the following actions should the nurse
take?
A. Administer a rectal suppository if the client reports constipation
B. Cleanse the client's urinary meatus with povidone-iodine solution
C. Ensure the drainage tube remains securely taped to the client's thigh
D. Remind the client that Kegel exercises prevent erectile dysfunction
Correct Answer: C. Ensure the drainage tube remains securely taped to the client's
thigh
Rationale: After radical prostatectomy, a urinary catheter is in place. Securing the
tubing to the thigh prevents traction on the catheter and urethral trauma. Rectal
suppositories are contraindicated post-prostatectomy due to risk of bleeding and
disruption of the surgical site. Povidone-iodine is too harsh for routine meatal care (soap
and water preferred). Kegel exercises help with urinary continence, not erectile
dysfunction.
13. A nurse is assessing a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the
following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?
A. Subcutaneous nodules
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Weight gain
D. Abdominal pain
Correct Answer: A. Subcutaneous nodules
Rationale: Rheumatoid nodules (subcutaneous, firm, non-tender) are characteristic
extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis, typically over extensor surfaces.
Thrombocytopenia is not typical (thrombocytosis may occur with inflammation). Weight
,loss (not gain) is common due to chronic inflammation. Abdominal pain is not a primary
manifestation.
14. A nurse is caring for a newly admitted client who has obsessive-compulsive
disorder and frequently performs ritualistic behaviors. The nurse should expect
which of the following client responses if ritualistic behavior is restricted?
A. Expresses relief from not having to perform the ritual
B. Reports auditory hallucinations
C. Experiences panic-level anxiety
D. Replaces it with a different ritualistic behavior
Correct Answer: C. Experiences panic-level anxiety
Rationale: For clients with OCD, ritualistic behaviors (compulsions) serve to reduce
anxiety associated with obsessive thoughts. Abrupt restriction without therapeutic
intervention causes severe anxiety, potentially reaching panic levels. Gradual exposure
and response prevention (ERP) is the evidence-based approach. Auditory hallucinations
are not characteristic of OCD.
15. A nurse is teaching a group of clients who have anorexia nervosa about
cognitive-behavioral therapy. Which of the following client statements indicates
an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will identify distorted thoughts about my body image."
B. "I will consider the negative effects of my eating disorder."
C. "I will imagine a peaceful scene when I feel anxious about food."
D. "I will get to attend a unit activity if I eat all of my meal."
Correct Answer: A. "I will identify distorted thoughts about my body image."
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) focuses on identifying and challenging
cognitive distortions (e.g., "I must be thin to be valued") that drive disordered eating
behaviors. This is distinct from motivational interviewing (B), guided imagery (C), or
behavioral reinforcement/token economy (D).
, 16. A nurse is providing teaching about physiological changes that occur during
the dying process to the family of a client who has a terminal illness. Which of the
following manifestations should the nurse include?
A. Periods of apnea
B. Increased thirst
C. Decreased secretions
D. Flushing of the extremities
Correct Answer: C. Decreased secretions
Rationale: As death approaches, decreased oral intake and metabolic changes lead
to reduced secretions, resulting in dry mucous membranes. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
(periods of apnea) occur, but decreased thirst (not increased) is expected. Extremities
become mottled and cool (not flushed) due to peripheral vasoconstriction.
17. A nurse is preparing an educational program about sexual assault for a group
of college students. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
A. Survivors of sexual assault exhibit similar psychological symptoms to one another
B. Survivors of sexual assault do not benefit from psychotherapy
C. Survivors of sexual assault are generally married living in metropolitan areas
D. Survivors of sexual assault often know their assailant
Correct Answer: D. Survivors of sexual assault often know their assailant
Rationale: Approximately 80% of sexual assault survivors know their perpetrator
(acquaintance, friend, intimate partner, family member). Responses to trauma vary
widely (not similar). Psychotherapy is highly beneficial. Sexual assault occurs across all
demographics regardless of marital status or location.
18. A nurse is providing teaching about home care to the family of a client who
has dementia. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
A. "Weigh the client once per month."
B. "Disguise exit doors in his home with posters."
