ATI RN
CONCEPTS LEVEL 2
EXAM QUESTIONS
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE SCENARIOS)
Answers with detailed Rationale
What You’ll Get:
• 100 CONCEPTS LEVEL 2 EXAM Style questions
• Questions with Answers
• quick review
• Printable, easy-to-study PDF
Not affiliated with ATI, VATI or NCLEX. For study purposes only.
, Preview Questions Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of any
study resources, feel free to Message me."
,Question 1 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is planning care for a client who has renal calculi. Which of the following
interventions should the nurse include to promote elimination of the calculi?
A. Maintain bedrest until calculi are passed
B. Withhold thiazide diuretics
C. Encourage intake of at least 3 L of fluid each day
D. Collect all urine for 24 hr in a collection container
Correct Answer: C
The nurse should encourage the client to consume at least 3 L of fluid each day. Increased
fluid intake increases urine production, promotes elimination of calculi, and helps prevent
future stone formation. Thiazide diuretics (Option B) are actually used to PREVENT calcium
stone formation, not withheld. Bedrest (Option A) is contraindicated as activity helps stone
passage. While 24-hour urine collection (Option D) may be used for diagnostic purposes, it
does not promote elimination of existing calculi.
Question 2 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is providing postoperative education for a client following a laparoscopic
cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis. Which of the following client statements indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
A. "The adhesive bandages on my incision will fall off as the incision heals"
B. "I will be able to take a shower in 1 day"
C. "I will need to follow a liquid diet for the first 3 days after surgery"
D. "I can begin to resume my normal activity level in 2 weeks"
Correct Answer: A
The nurse should instruct the client that the small adhesive bandages will lose their
adhesiveness in 7 to 10 days. The client can then remove the bandages or allow them to fall
,off over time as the incision heals. Clients can typically shower within 24-48 hours (Option
B is partially correct but not the BEST indication of understanding). Regular diet is usually
resumed quickly after laparoscopic surgery (Option C is incorrect). Normal activity can
often resume within 1 week (Option D is overly conservative).
Question 3 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is planning care to prevent hospital-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus
aureus (MRSA) infection for a client who is immunocompromised. Which of the following
interventions should the nurse include?
A. Initiate contact precautions for this client
B. Bathe the client with chlorhexidine wipes
C. Administer ceftaroline to the client as a prophylactic measure
D. Avoid using alcohol-based hand sanitizers after caring for the client
Correct Answer: B
The nurse should bathe a client who is immunocompromised with chlorhexidine wipes to
decrease the risk of contracting hospital-acquired MRSA. Contact precautions (Option A)
are used for clients who ALREADY have MRSA, not for prevention. Prophylactic antibiotics
(Option C) are not recommended due to resistance concerns. Alcohol-based hand
sanitizers (Option D) are actually EFFECTIVE against MRSA and should be used.
Question 4 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is assessing a client who has developed type 1 herpes simplex virus. Which of the
following descriptions should the nurse identify as characteristic of this type of viral
infection?
A. Painful genital ulcers
B. Recurring cold sores around the mouth
,C. Vesicular rash in a dermatomal pattern
D. Widespread maculopapular rash
Correct Answer: B
Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) is a common viral infection that causes recurring cold
sores (fever blisters) around the mouth and lips. HSV-2 (Option A) typically causes genital
herpes. Dermatomal vesicular rash (Option C) describes herpes zoster (shingles).
Widespread maculopapular rash (Option D) is not characteristic of HSV-1.
Question 5 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is assessing a client who has Graves' disease. Which of the following findings
should the nurse expect?
A. Somnolence
B. Cold intolerance
C. Exophthalmos
D. Dry, scaly skin
Correct Answer: C
The nurse should expect a client who has Graves' disease, an autoimmune form of
hyperthyroidism, to experience exophthalmos (protrusion of the eyeballs). Somnolence
(Option A), cold intolerance (Option B), and dry scaly skin (Option D) are all manifestations
of HYPOTHYROIDISM (opposite condition), not hyperthyroidism.
Question 6 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is teaching an older adult client who has peripheral neuropathy about a new
prescription for duloxetine. Which of the following client statements indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
,A. "It might take several weeks to notice an improvement in my symptoms."
B. "I will need to take this medication on an empty stomach."
C. "I should take a daily ibuprofen for generalized aches."
D. "I will need to decrease my dietary sodium intake while taking this medication."
Correct Answer: A
The nurse should instruct the client that duloxetine can take several weeks (typically 2-4
weeks) to be effective. This medication is an SNRI antidepressant that reduces the
discomfort of peripheral neuropathy. Duloxetine can be taken with or without food (Option
B is incorrect). NSAIDs like ibuprofen (Option C) may increase bleeding risk and are not
specifically recommended. Sodium restriction (Option D) is not a specific requirement for
duloxetine therapy.
Question 7 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is teaching a client who has scabies about a new prescription for lindane lotion.
Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the treatment for
this parasitic infection?
A. "I will apply the lotion once a day for 1 week."
B. "I will rub in the lotion thoroughly from my face to my toes."
C. "I will wash the lotion off 12 hours after I apply it."
D. "I should avoid bathing for 6 hours prior to applying the lotion."
Correct Answer: C
The nurse should instruct the client to apply the lotion and leave it in place for 8 to 12
hours, then remove it by washing it off. Lindane is applied once (not daily for a week as in
Option A). It should be applied from neck down only, NOT the face (Option B is dangerous).
While bathing before application is recommended, 6 hours is arbitrary (Option D is
incorrect).
,Question 8 (Multiple Choice - Priority)
A nurse is assessing a client who has appendicitis. Which of the following findings should
the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A. WBC 16,000/mm³
B. Board-like abdomen
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Temperature of 38°C (100.4°F)
Correct Answer: B
When using the urgent vs. nonurgent approach to client care, the nurse should identify that
a board-like abdomen (rigid abdomen) is the PRIORITY finding indicating peritonitis—a life-
threatening complication. The nurse should notify the provider immediately. While elevated
WBC (Option A), nausea/vomiting (Option C), and low-grade fever (Option D) are expected
findings in appendicitis, they do not indicate perforation like a rigid abdomen does.
Question 9 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is teaching a client who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) about ways to
prevent reflux. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Drink tomato juice with breakfast
B. Suck on peppermint when having symptoms
C. Elevate the head of the bed 10 cm (4 in) using wooden blocks
D. Plan to finish eating at least 3 hr before bedtime
Correct Answer: D
,The nurse should encourage the client not to eat anything at least 3 hours before bedtime
to prevent nocturnal reflux. Tomato juice (Option A) and peppermint (Option B) both
WORSEN GERD symptoms by increasing acid or relaxing the LES. While elevating the head
of the bed IS recommended, 10 cm is insufficient—15-20 cm (6-8 inches) is the standard
recommendation (Option C is incorrect).
Question 10 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is teaching a client who has a deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) about a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following client statements indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will stop taking the medication immediately if I experience nausea."
B. "I should contact my provider if I notice a pink-tinged color to my urine."
C. "I will increase my dietary intake of green leafy vegetables."
D. "I will not be able to use an electric razor while I am taking this medication."
Correct Answer: B
The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for blood in the urine. The client should
report a pink-tinged urine color to the provider immediately as this indicates bleeding.
Nausea (Option A) is not a reason to discontinue warfarin abruptly. Green leafy vegetables
(Option C) are HIGH in vitamin K and will ANTAGONIZE warfarin's effects—clients should
maintain CONSISTENT (not increased) intake. Electric razors (Option D) are actually SAFER
and RECOMMENDED for clients on anticoagulants.
Question 11 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is reviewing the urinalysis results of a client who has completed a 14-day course of
ciprofloxacin to treat pyelonephritis. Which of the following values should indicate to the
nurse that the client has a continuing infection?
A. Negative nitrites
,B. RBCs <2
C. Positive leukocyte esterase
D. Amber-colored urine
Correct Answer: C
The nurse should identify that a positive leukocyte esterase test is an indication of the
presence of WBCs in the urine and the presence of continued infection. Negative nitrites
(Option A) and normal RBCs (Option B) are expected findings after treatment. Amber-
colored urine (Option D) is a normal finding related to concentration and does not indicate
infection.
Question 12 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is assessing a client for manifestations of grief after having a colostomy for removal
of colon cancer. Which of the following findings indicates to the nurse that the client has
accepted the loss?
A. Becomes angry when it is time to perform colostomy care
B. Touches the colostomy stoma when the bag is changed
C. Looks away as the nurse empties the colostomy bag
D. Tells others that it will be nice to have a normal bowel movement again
Correct Answer: B
The client touching the colostomy stoma when the bag is changed should indicate to the
nurse that the client is accepting and coping with the alteration of body image and has
gone through the stages of grief to reach acceptance. Anger (Option A) and avoidance
(Option C) indicate earlier stages of grief. Denial (Option D—expecting normal bowel
function) also indicates lack of acceptance.
, Question 13 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is assessing a school-age child who has appendicitis with possible perforation.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of peritonitis?
A. Abdominal distention
B. Bradycardia
C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
D. Slow, deep breathing
Correct Answer: A
The nurse should identify that peritonitis is an inflammation of the lining of the abdominal
wall. This inflammation, along with the ileus (paralytic ileus) that develops, causes
abdominal distention; therefore, the nurse should identify this as a manifestation of
peritonitis. Bradycardia (Option B) is not expected—tachycardia is more likely. Bowel
sounds become HYPOACTIVE or ABSENT (not hyperactive, Option C). Breathing typically
becomes SHALLOW and rapid due to pain (not slow and deep, Option D).
Question 14 (Multiple Choice - Priority)
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a peptic ulcer. Which of the
following findings is a priority to report to the provider?
A. Melena stools
B. Hemoglobin 7.6 g/dL
C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 2 weeks
D. Dyspepsia during the day
Correct Answer: B
When using the urgent vs. nonurgent approach to client care, the nurse should determine
that the priority finding to report to the provider is the hemoglobin below the expected
reference range (normal: 12-16 g/dL for women, 13.5-17.5 g/dL for men), which is an
CONCEPTS LEVEL 2
EXAM QUESTIONS
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE SCENARIOS)
Answers with detailed Rationale
What You’ll Get:
• 100 CONCEPTS LEVEL 2 EXAM Style questions
• Questions with Answers
• quick review
• Printable, easy-to-study PDF
Not affiliated with ATI, VATI or NCLEX. For study purposes only.
, Preview Questions Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of any
study resources, feel free to Message me."
,Question 1 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is planning care for a client who has renal calculi. Which of the following
interventions should the nurse include to promote elimination of the calculi?
A. Maintain bedrest until calculi are passed
B. Withhold thiazide diuretics
C. Encourage intake of at least 3 L of fluid each day
D. Collect all urine for 24 hr in a collection container
Correct Answer: C
The nurse should encourage the client to consume at least 3 L of fluid each day. Increased
fluid intake increases urine production, promotes elimination of calculi, and helps prevent
future stone formation. Thiazide diuretics (Option B) are actually used to PREVENT calcium
stone formation, not withheld. Bedrest (Option A) is contraindicated as activity helps stone
passage. While 24-hour urine collection (Option D) may be used for diagnostic purposes, it
does not promote elimination of existing calculi.
Question 2 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is providing postoperative education for a client following a laparoscopic
cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis. Which of the following client statements indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
A. "The adhesive bandages on my incision will fall off as the incision heals"
B. "I will be able to take a shower in 1 day"
C. "I will need to follow a liquid diet for the first 3 days after surgery"
D. "I can begin to resume my normal activity level in 2 weeks"
Correct Answer: A
The nurse should instruct the client that the small adhesive bandages will lose their
adhesiveness in 7 to 10 days. The client can then remove the bandages or allow them to fall
,off over time as the incision heals. Clients can typically shower within 24-48 hours (Option
B is partially correct but not the BEST indication of understanding). Regular diet is usually
resumed quickly after laparoscopic surgery (Option C is incorrect). Normal activity can
often resume within 1 week (Option D is overly conservative).
Question 3 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is planning care to prevent hospital-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus
aureus (MRSA) infection for a client who is immunocompromised. Which of the following
interventions should the nurse include?
A. Initiate contact precautions for this client
B. Bathe the client with chlorhexidine wipes
C. Administer ceftaroline to the client as a prophylactic measure
D. Avoid using alcohol-based hand sanitizers after caring for the client
Correct Answer: B
The nurse should bathe a client who is immunocompromised with chlorhexidine wipes to
decrease the risk of contracting hospital-acquired MRSA. Contact precautions (Option A)
are used for clients who ALREADY have MRSA, not for prevention. Prophylactic antibiotics
(Option C) are not recommended due to resistance concerns. Alcohol-based hand
sanitizers (Option D) are actually EFFECTIVE against MRSA and should be used.
Question 4 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is assessing a client who has developed type 1 herpes simplex virus. Which of the
following descriptions should the nurse identify as characteristic of this type of viral
infection?
A. Painful genital ulcers
B. Recurring cold sores around the mouth
,C. Vesicular rash in a dermatomal pattern
D. Widespread maculopapular rash
Correct Answer: B
Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) is a common viral infection that causes recurring cold
sores (fever blisters) around the mouth and lips. HSV-2 (Option A) typically causes genital
herpes. Dermatomal vesicular rash (Option C) describes herpes zoster (shingles).
Widespread maculopapular rash (Option D) is not characteristic of HSV-1.
Question 5 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is assessing a client who has Graves' disease. Which of the following findings
should the nurse expect?
A. Somnolence
B. Cold intolerance
C. Exophthalmos
D. Dry, scaly skin
Correct Answer: C
The nurse should expect a client who has Graves' disease, an autoimmune form of
hyperthyroidism, to experience exophthalmos (protrusion of the eyeballs). Somnolence
(Option A), cold intolerance (Option B), and dry scaly skin (Option D) are all manifestations
of HYPOTHYROIDISM (opposite condition), not hyperthyroidism.
Question 6 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is teaching an older adult client who has peripheral neuropathy about a new
prescription for duloxetine. Which of the following client statements indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
,A. "It might take several weeks to notice an improvement in my symptoms."
B. "I will need to take this medication on an empty stomach."
C. "I should take a daily ibuprofen for generalized aches."
D. "I will need to decrease my dietary sodium intake while taking this medication."
Correct Answer: A
The nurse should instruct the client that duloxetine can take several weeks (typically 2-4
weeks) to be effective. This medication is an SNRI antidepressant that reduces the
discomfort of peripheral neuropathy. Duloxetine can be taken with or without food (Option
B is incorrect). NSAIDs like ibuprofen (Option C) may increase bleeding risk and are not
specifically recommended. Sodium restriction (Option D) is not a specific requirement for
duloxetine therapy.
Question 7 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is teaching a client who has scabies about a new prescription for lindane lotion.
Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the treatment for
this parasitic infection?
A. "I will apply the lotion once a day for 1 week."
B. "I will rub in the lotion thoroughly from my face to my toes."
C. "I will wash the lotion off 12 hours after I apply it."
D. "I should avoid bathing for 6 hours prior to applying the lotion."
Correct Answer: C
The nurse should instruct the client to apply the lotion and leave it in place for 8 to 12
hours, then remove it by washing it off. Lindane is applied once (not daily for a week as in
Option A). It should be applied from neck down only, NOT the face (Option B is dangerous).
While bathing before application is recommended, 6 hours is arbitrary (Option D is
incorrect).
,Question 8 (Multiple Choice - Priority)
A nurse is assessing a client who has appendicitis. Which of the following findings should
the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A. WBC 16,000/mm³
B. Board-like abdomen
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Temperature of 38°C (100.4°F)
Correct Answer: B
When using the urgent vs. nonurgent approach to client care, the nurse should identify that
a board-like abdomen (rigid abdomen) is the PRIORITY finding indicating peritonitis—a life-
threatening complication. The nurse should notify the provider immediately. While elevated
WBC (Option A), nausea/vomiting (Option C), and low-grade fever (Option D) are expected
findings in appendicitis, they do not indicate perforation like a rigid abdomen does.
Question 9 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is teaching a client who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) about ways to
prevent reflux. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Drink tomato juice with breakfast
B. Suck on peppermint when having symptoms
C. Elevate the head of the bed 10 cm (4 in) using wooden blocks
D. Plan to finish eating at least 3 hr before bedtime
Correct Answer: D
,The nurse should encourage the client not to eat anything at least 3 hours before bedtime
to prevent nocturnal reflux. Tomato juice (Option A) and peppermint (Option B) both
WORSEN GERD symptoms by increasing acid or relaxing the LES. While elevating the head
of the bed IS recommended, 10 cm is insufficient—15-20 cm (6-8 inches) is the standard
recommendation (Option C is incorrect).
Question 10 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is teaching a client who has a deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) about a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following client statements indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will stop taking the medication immediately if I experience nausea."
B. "I should contact my provider if I notice a pink-tinged color to my urine."
C. "I will increase my dietary intake of green leafy vegetables."
D. "I will not be able to use an electric razor while I am taking this medication."
Correct Answer: B
The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for blood in the urine. The client should
report a pink-tinged urine color to the provider immediately as this indicates bleeding.
Nausea (Option A) is not a reason to discontinue warfarin abruptly. Green leafy vegetables
(Option C) are HIGH in vitamin K and will ANTAGONIZE warfarin's effects—clients should
maintain CONSISTENT (not increased) intake. Electric razors (Option D) are actually SAFER
and RECOMMENDED for clients on anticoagulants.
Question 11 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is reviewing the urinalysis results of a client who has completed a 14-day course of
ciprofloxacin to treat pyelonephritis. Which of the following values should indicate to the
nurse that the client has a continuing infection?
A. Negative nitrites
,B. RBCs <2
C. Positive leukocyte esterase
D. Amber-colored urine
Correct Answer: C
The nurse should identify that a positive leukocyte esterase test is an indication of the
presence of WBCs in the urine and the presence of continued infection. Negative nitrites
(Option A) and normal RBCs (Option B) are expected findings after treatment. Amber-
colored urine (Option D) is a normal finding related to concentration and does not indicate
infection.
Question 12 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is assessing a client for manifestations of grief after having a colostomy for removal
of colon cancer. Which of the following findings indicates to the nurse that the client has
accepted the loss?
A. Becomes angry when it is time to perform colostomy care
B. Touches the colostomy stoma when the bag is changed
C. Looks away as the nurse empties the colostomy bag
D. Tells others that it will be nice to have a normal bowel movement again
Correct Answer: B
The client touching the colostomy stoma when the bag is changed should indicate to the
nurse that the client is accepting and coping with the alteration of body image and has
gone through the stages of grief to reach acceptance. Anger (Option A) and avoidance
(Option C) indicate earlier stages of grief. Denial (Option D—expecting normal bowel
function) also indicates lack of acceptance.
, Question 13 (Multiple Choice)
A nurse is assessing a school-age child who has appendicitis with possible perforation.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of peritonitis?
A. Abdominal distention
B. Bradycardia
C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
D. Slow, deep breathing
Correct Answer: A
The nurse should identify that peritonitis is an inflammation of the lining of the abdominal
wall. This inflammation, along with the ileus (paralytic ileus) that develops, causes
abdominal distention; therefore, the nurse should identify this as a manifestation of
peritonitis. Bradycardia (Option B) is not expected—tachycardia is more likely. Bowel
sounds become HYPOACTIVE or ABSENT (not hyperactive, Option C). Breathing typically
becomes SHALLOW and rapid due to pain (not slow and deep, Option D).
Question 14 (Multiple Choice - Priority)
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a peptic ulcer. Which of the
following findings is a priority to report to the provider?
A. Melena stools
B. Hemoglobin 7.6 g/dL
C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 2 weeks
D. Dyspepsia during the day
Correct Answer: B
When using the urgent vs. nonurgent approach to client care, the nurse should determine
that the priority finding to report to the provider is the hemoglobin below the expected
reference range (normal: 12-16 g/dL for women, 13.5-17.5 g/dL for men), which is an
