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NS 681
COMPLETE REVIEW
2026–2027 EDITION
COMPLETE STUDY GUIDE WITH PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS
✓ 2026–2027 Updated Edition
✓ Complete Review
✓ Comprehensive Questions & Answers
✓ Ideal for Exam Preparation
Y
STUD
✓ Organized for Quick Revision
E
This Document Description: GUID
This document contains a comprehensive collection of newly written practice questions with answers and explanations
for NS 681 Complete Review (2026–2027 Edition). It is designed to reinforce essential course concepts, support
structured revision, and help learners prepare for quizzes, examinations, and course assessments.
, NS 681 COMPLETE REVIEW • 2026–2027
1. A 24-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes presents with vomiting, abdominal pain, Kussmaul
respirations, glucose of 620 mg/dL, and potassium of 3.1 mEq/L after initial fluids. What is the most
critical next step?
A. Start an intravenous insulin infusion immediately.
B. Administer intravenous potassium replacement.
C. Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
D. Restrict intravenous fluids.
Correct Answer: B. A. Start an intravenous insulin infusion immediately.
Explanation:
In diabetic ketoacidosis, total-body potassium is depleted. When serum potassium is below 3.3 mEq/L,
potassium should be replaced before insulin because insulin can shift potassium intracellularly and precipitate
dangerous hypokalemia.
2. A 45-year-old patient with known adrenal insufficiency presents with profound hypotension,
hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia after several days of vomiting. Which medication is the priority?
A. Intravenous hydrocortisone.
B. Oral fludrocortisone only.
C. Intravenous potassium chloride.
D. Oral levothyroxine.
Correct Answer: A. Intravenous hydrocortisone.
Explanation:
An adrenal crisis is life-threatening. Immediate parenteral glucocorticoid replacement, together with appropriate
fluid resuscitation, is essential to restore vascular tone and correct the endocrine emergency.
3. A patient arrives actively seizing. The seizure has continued for eight minutes and IV access is
available. Which medication is a first-line pharmacologic treatment?
A. Intravenous lorazepam.
B. Oral phenytoin.
C. Oral levetiracetam.
D. Intravenous acetazolamide.
Correct Answer: A. Intravenous lorazepam.
Explanation:
Prolonged seizure activity requires rapid termination. An intravenous benzodiazepine such as lorazepam is a
standard first-line treatment because it rapidly enhances GABA-mediated inhibition.
NS 681
COMPLETE REVIEW
2026–2027 EDITION
COMPLETE STUDY GUIDE WITH PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS
✓ 2026–2027 Updated Edition
✓ Complete Review
✓ Comprehensive Questions & Answers
✓ Ideal for Exam Preparation
Y
STUD
✓ Organized for Quick Revision
E
This Document Description: GUID
This document contains a comprehensive collection of newly written practice questions with answers and explanations
for NS 681 Complete Review (2026–2027 Edition). It is designed to reinforce essential course concepts, support
structured revision, and help learners prepare for quizzes, examinations, and course assessments.
, NS 681 COMPLETE REVIEW • 2026–2027
1. A 24-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes presents with vomiting, abdominal pain, Kussmaul
respirations, glucose of 620 mg/dL, and potassium of 3.1 mEq/L after initial fluids. What is the most
critical next step?
A. Start an intravenous insulin infusion immediately.
B. Administer intravenous potassium replacement.
C. Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
D. Restrict intravenous fluids.
Correct Answer: B. A. Start an intravenous insulin infusion immediately.
Explanation:
In diabetic ketoacidosis, total-body potassium is depleted. When serum potassium is below 3.3 mEq/L,
potassium should be replaced before insulin because insulin can shift potassium intracellularly and precipitate
dangerous hypokalemia.
2. A 45-year-old patient with known adrenal insufficiency presents with profound hypotension,
hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia after several days of vomiting. Which medication is the priority?
A. Intravenous hydrocortisone.
B. Oral fludrocortisone only.
C. Intravenous potassium chloride.
D. Oral levothyroxine.
Correct Answer: A. Intravenous hydrocortisone.
Explanation:
An adrenal crisis is life-threatening. Immediate parenteral glucocorticoid replacement, together with appropriate
fluid resuscitation, is essential to restore vascular tone and correct the endocrine emergency.
3. A patient arrives actively seizing. The seizure has continued for eight minutes and IV access is
available. Which medication is a first-line pharmacologic treatment?
A. Intravenous lorazepam.
B. Oral phenytoin.
C. Oral levetiracetam.
D. Intravenous acetazolamide.
Correct Answer: A. Intravenous lorazepam.
Explanation:
Prolonged seizure activity requires rapid termination. An intravenous benzodiazepine such as lorazepam is a
standard first-line treatment because it rapidly enhances GABA-mediated inhibition.
