APEA CEU FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS
APEA CEU FNP
Exam Practice Qs
200 Questions & Answers
Exam Preparation
Main Features:
• Focused exam review
• Questions and Answers
• Extensive collection of Review questions and answers
• Helpful for identifying knowledge gaps
• Covers high-yield concepts
• Supports structured study and final revision
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions | Page 1
, APEA CEU FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions
Editable Questions, Answer Choices, and Supplied Correct Answers
204 numbered questions • Source wording preserved • Quizlet headers and PDF line-wrap
artifacts removed
Practice Questions
1. Which statements are consistent with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)? Select all
that apply.
A. Patients with PCOS are at low risk for endometrial cancer.
B. The diagnosis of PCOS requires ultrasound studies
C. The diagnostic workup for suspected PCOS should be individualized to the patient.
D. The risks and complications associated with PCOS are numerous and potentially serious.
Correct Answers: The diagnostic workup for suspected PCOS should be individualized to
the patient.
• The risks and complications associated with PCOS are numerous and potentially serious.
2. Which statements about contraception are correct? Select all that apply.
A. Long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs) may be safely used by nulliparous women.
B. For patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (COS), combination oral contraceptives are
generally safe and effective, and can be helpful with PCOS symptoms.
C. LARCs should not be inserted by primary care providers.
D. The management of heavy menses requires low-dose estrogen- and progestin-containing
combined hormonal contraceptives.
Correct Answers: Long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs) may be safely used by
nulliparous women.
• For patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (COS), combination oral contraceptives are
generally safe and effective, and can be helpful with PCOS symptoms.
3. Which statements about cervical cancer are correct? Select all that apply.
A. Women between ages 21 and 29 years should be screened every 5 years with Pap testing
only.
B. The cervical cancer screening intervals recommended by the American Cancer Society
and the ASCC are safe and were developed according to evidence-based guidelines.
C. Immunization against HPV is most effective when administered before age 26 years.
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions | Page 2
, APEA CEU FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS
D. Two HPV vaccine doses are recommended for patients who are younger than 15 years
and not sexually active.
Correct Answers: The cervical cancer screening intervals recommended by the American
Cancer Society and the ASCC are safe and were developed according to evidence-based
guidelines.
• Two HPV vaccine doses are recommended for patients who are younger than 15 years and
not sexually active.
4. A 19-year-old patient has been diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. Which choices are
appropriate diagnostic or management considerations? Select all that apply.
A. This patient should be treated with oral or vaginal metronidazole or an alternative
antibiotic.
B. While this patient is undergoing treatment, her partner should wear a condom for sexual
intercourse.
C. This patient should douche for symptom relief.
D. This patient should be informed that she has a sexually transmitted infection (STI).
E. This patient should be screened for the most common STIs.
Correct Answers: This patient should be treated with oral or vaginal metronidazole or an
alternative antibiotic.
• This patient should be screened for the most common STIs.
5. A 24 year old women calls the office stating that she thinks she has a vaginal yeast
infection again. She requests that her provider call in a prescription. which statements
are correct? SATA
A. ask her to come in for an exam as soon as possible
B. take a brief history before deciding if she should be seen
C. call in an antifungal since she is known to you
D. recommend an OTC external cream for sympt relief until she can be seen
Correct Answers: ask her to come in for an exam as soon as possible
• recommend an OTC external cream for sympt relief until she can be seen
6. Which of the following can be a secondary cause of osteoporosis? Select all that
apply.
A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Longstanding hyperthyroidism
C. Oral glucocorticoid use for >3 months
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions | Page 3
, APEA CEU FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS
D. Chronic malnutrition
E. Chronic kidney disease
Correct Answers: Type 1 diabetes
• Longstanding hyperthyroidism
• Oral glucocorticoid use for > 3 months
• Chronic malnutrition
• Chronic kidney disease
7. Which statements about folic acid are correct? Select all that apply.
A. All pregnant women should take 1 mcg folic acid daily.
B. When planning to become pregnant, women should take 0.4 mg folic acid daily.
C. Maternal folic acid use can prevent cleft palate in the developing fetus.
D. Maternal folic acid use can prevent neural tube defects in the developing fetus.
Correct Answers: When planning to become pregnant, women should take 0.4 mg folic acid
daily.
• Maternal folic acid use can prevent neural tube defects in the developing fetus.
8. Which of the following should the NP recognize as clues to domestic violence in a
pregnant patient?
A. Missed prenatal visits without notification
B. A partner who refuses to allow the patient to be examined in private
C. Bipolar disorder in the patient's partner
D. Poor eye contact by patient
E. Improbable injury or injuries in the pregnant patient
Correct Answers: Missed prenatal visits without notification
• A partner who refuses to allow the patient to be examined in private
• Improbable injury or injuries in the pregnant patient
9. Which one of the following statements indicates that the NP understands probable
pregnancy with a urine hG test?
A. in a normal pregnancy, urine and blood tests are about equally accurate.
B. If an ectopic pregnancy is suspected, a qualitative hG serum test should be ordered.
C. If a home urine test is positive, an in-office test is not needed.
D. Urine testing can be done as soon as a missed period occurs.
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions | Page 4
, APEA CEU FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Correct Answer: in a normal pregnancy, urine and blood tests are about equally accurate.
10. Which of the following vaccines are safe to administer to a pregnant patient? Select
all that apply.
A. Tetanus and diphtheria
B. Measles, mumps and rubella
C. 9-valent HPV
D. Influenza
E. Pneumococcal
Correct Answer: Tdap Flu
11. A 34-year-old woman presents with a complaint of lower right quadrant pain. Her last
menstrual period was 45 days ago. What should be in the differential diagnosis? Select
all that apply.
A. Cholecystitis
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Gastroenteritis
E. Ovarian cyst
Correct Answers: Urinary tract infection
• Ectopic pregnancy
• Gastroenteritis
• Ovarian cyst
12. A patient who is 11 weeks pregnant is taking fluoxetine (Prozac) for depression.
Should any adjustments be made to this therapy?
A. Yes. Discontinue fluoxetine and consider sertraline (Zoloft).
B. Yes. Discontinue fluoxetine and start a tricyclic antidepressant.
C. No. Continue the fluoxetine at the same dose.
D. Yes. Continue the fluoxetine but reduce the dose.
Correct Answer: Yes. Discontinue fluoxetine and consider sertraline (Zoloft).
13. Which antibiotics are not contraindicated in pregnancy? SATA
A. Amoxicillin
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions | Page 5
, APEA CEU FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS
B. Levofloxacin
C. Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole
D. Doxycycline
E. Cefalexin
Correct Answers: Amoxicillin
• Cefalexin
14. Which statements about gestational diabetes are correct? Select all that apply.
A. Screening for gestational diabetes should be conducted in the second trimester.
B. One abnormal reading on the 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is considered
diagnostic for gestational diabetes
C. Gestational diabetes affects about 18% of pregnant women.
D. Gestational diabetes is associated with maternal and fetal abnormalities.
Correct Answers: Screening for gestational diabetes should be conducted in the second
trimester.
• Gestational diabetes affects about 18% of pregnant women.
• Gestational diabetes is associated with maternal and fetal abnormalities.
15. Which one of the following is not a symptom of ectopic pregnancy?
A. Lower abdominal pain
B. High fever
C. Vaginal bleeding
D. Missed menses
Correct Answer: High fever
16. A pregnant mother is Rh negative. When should she receive RhoGAM (anti D immune
globulin)? Select all that apply.
A. At the time pregnancy is diagnosed
B. At 12 to 14 weeks' gestation
C. At about 28 weeks' gestation
D. During each trimester
E. Within 72 hours of delivery
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions | Page 6
, APEA CEU FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Correct Answers: At 28 weeks
• Within 72 hours
17. A pregnant mother who is Rh negative experienced a suspected miscarriage early
this morning. Her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. How should this patient be
managed today?
A. She does not require RhoGAM (anti D immune globulin).
B. She should receive RhoGAM now.
C. She does not need RhoGAM because the miscarriage did not occur in the second
trimester.
D. She does not need RhoGAM because the miscarriage did not occur in the third trimester.
Correct Answer: She should receive RhoGAM now.
18. Which of the following are signs of preterm labor? Select all that apply.
A. Low or dull backache
B. Increased uterine activity
C. Menstruation-like cramps
D. Constipation
E. Vaginal spotting or bleeding
Correct Answers: Low or dull backache
• Increased uterine activity
• Menstruation-like cramps
• Vaginal spotting or bleeding
19. What statements are true about placenta previa? Select all that apply.
A. It causes painless vaginal bleeding.
B. It usually occurs in the second trimester.
C. Obstetric referral is not needed unless the symptoms worsen.
D. It may progress to placenta abruptio.
Correct Answers: It causes painless vaginal bleeding.
• It usually occurs in the second trimester.
• It may progress to placenta abruptio.
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions | Page 7
, APEA CEU FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS
20. According to the CDC, what is the recommended daily dose of folic acid for pregnant
women?
A. 0.5 mcg (500 mg) per day
B. 1,000 mcg (1 mg) per day
C. 0.4 mcg (400 mg) per day
D. 2,000 mcg (2 mg) per day
Correct Answer: 1,000 mcg (1 mg) per day
21. Which statement is not true about ectopic pregnancy?
A. Fallopian tube rupture may occur shortly after the onset of symptoms.
B. Symptoms typically develop about 6-8 weeks after the last menstrual period.
C. Serum hCG levels double every 24-72 hours.
D. Lower abdominal pain may occur on the right or left side.
Correct Answer: Serum hCG levels double every 24-72 hours.
22. Folic acid is recommended prior to and during the first 3 months of pregnancy to
prevent neural tube defects. Which of the following answer choices are examples of
neural tube defects? Select all that apply.
A. Cleft palate
B. Spina bifida
C. Anencephaly
D. Encephalocele
Correct Answers: Spina bifida
• Anencephaly
• Encephalocele
23. A patient has a fundal height measurement of 32 cm. Which of the following is a
correct statement about this patient?
A. She is 14-18 weeks pregnant.
B. She is 18-22 weeks pregnant.
C. She is 32 weeks pregnant.
D. She is at term and ready to deliver.
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions | Page 8
, APEA CEU FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Correct Answer: She is 32 weeks pregnant.
24. The uterine fundus should be palpable at 20 weeks' gestation
A. at the level of the umbilicus.
B. just above the level of the symphysis pubis.
C. midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus.
D. below the symphysis pubis.
Correct Answer: at the level of the umbilicus.
25. A patient who is 14 days postpartum has a positive screen for depression. What is
this patient's most likely diagnosis?
A. Postpartum "blues"
B. Postpartum depression
C. Major depressive disorder
D. Postpartum psychosis
Correct Answer: Postpartum depression
26. Common side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include:
SATA
A. diarrhea.
B. nausea.
C. sexual dysfunction.
D. somnolence.
E. weight loss.
Correct Answers: diarrhea.
• nausea.
• sexual dysfunction.
• somnolence.
27. Amsel's criteria for bacterial vaginosis (BV) diagnosis include: SATA
A. homogenous white discharge coating the vulva/vagina.
B. vaginal pH of >4.7.
C. fishy odor of vaginal discharge before or after addition of KOH ("whiff test"). clue cells on
microscopic exam.
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions | Page 9
, APEA CEU FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Correct Answers: homogenous white discharge coating the vulva/vagina.
• vaginal pH of >4.7.
• fishy odor of vaginal discharge before or after addition of KOH ("whiff test"). clue cells on
microscopic exam.
28. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (POS) reflects an excess of which hormone?
A. Androgen
B. Estrogen
C. Testosterone
D. Progestin
Correct Answer: Androgen
29. What is the most common causative agent in mononucleosis?
A. Adenovirus
B. Coxsackie B virus
C. Epstein Barr virus
D. Herpes simplex virus
Correct Answer: Epstein Barr virus
30. What is the instrument used to measure intraocular pressure?
A. Dermatoscope
B. Ophthalmoscope
C. Tonometer
D. Pachymeter
Correct Answer: Tonometer
31. Which of the following is the most useful to a clinician in making a correct diagnosis
of asthma?
A. Chest X-ray
B. Spirometry
C. Peak flow monitoring
D. History
Correct Answer: Spirometry
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions | Page 10
APEA CEU FNP
Exam Practice Qs
200 Questions & Answers
Exam Preparation
Main Features:
• Focused exam review
• Questions and Answers
• Extensive collection of Review questions and answers
• Helpful for identifying knowledge gaps
• Covers high-yield concepts
• Supports structured study and final revision
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions | Page 1
, APEA CEU FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions
Editable Questions, Answer Choices, and Supplied Correct Answers
204 numbered questions • Source wording preserved • Quizlet headers and PDF line-wrap
artifacts removed
Practice Questions
1. Which statements are consistent with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)? Select all
that apply.
A. Patients with PCOS are at low risk for endometrial cancer.
B. The diagnosis of PCOS requires ultrasound studies
C. The diagnostic workup for suspected PCOS should be individualized to the patient.
D. The risks and complications associated with PCOS are numerous and potentially serious.
Correct Answers: The diagnostic workup for suspected PCOS should be individualized to
the patient.
• The risks and complications associated with PCOS are numerous and potentially serious.
2. Which statements about contraception are correct? Select all that apply.
A. Long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs) may be safely used by nulliparous women.
B. For patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (COS), combination oral contraceptives are
generally safe and effective, and can be helpful with PCOS symptoms.
C. LARCs should not be inserted by primary care providers.
D. The management of heavy menses requires low-dose estrogen- and progestin-containing
combined hormonal contraceptives.
Correct Answers: Long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs) may be safely used by
nulliparous women.
• For patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (COS), combination oral contraceptives are
generally safe and effective, and can be helpful with PCOS symptoms.
3. Which statements about cervical cancer are correct? Select all that apply.
A. Women between ages 21 and 29 years should be screened every 5 years with Pap testing
only.
B. The cervical cancer screening intervals recommended by the American Cancer Society
and the ASCC are safe and were developed according to evidence-based guidelines.
C. Immunization against HPV is most effective when administered before age 26 years.
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions | Page 2
, APEA CEU FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS
D. Two HPV vaccine doses are recommended for patients who are younger than 15 years
and not sexually active.
Correct Answers: The cervical cancer screening intervals recommended by the American
Cancer Society and the ASCC are safe and were developed according to evidence-based
guidelines.
• Two HPV vaccine doses are recommended for patients who are younger than 15 years and
not sexually active.
4. A 19-year-old patient has been diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. Which choices are
appropriate diagnostic or management considerations? Select all that apply.
A. This patient should be treated with oral or vaginal metronidazole or an alternative
antibiotic.
B. While this patient is undergoing treatment, her partner should wear a condom for sexual
intercourse.
C. This patient should douche for symptom relief.
D. This patient should be informed that she has a sexually transmitted infection (STI).
E. This patient should be screened for the most common STIs.
Correct Answers: This patient should be treated with oral or vaginal metronidazole or an
alternative antibiotic.
• This patient should be screened for the most common STIs.
5. A 24 year old women calls the office stating that she thinks she has a vaginal yeast
infection again. She requests that her provider call in a prescription. which statements
are correct? SATA
A. ask her to come in for an exam as soon as possible
B. take a brief history before deciding if she should be seen
C. call in an antifungal since she is known to you
D. recommend an OTC external cream for sympt relief until she can be seen
Correct Answers: ask her to come in for an exam as soon as possible
• recommend an OTC external cream for sympt relief until she can be seen
6. Which of the following can be a secondary cause of osteoporosis? Select all that
apply.
A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Longstanding hyperthyroidism
C. Oral glucocorticoid use for >3 months
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions | Page 3
, APEA CEU FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS
D. Chronic malnutrition
E. Chronic kidney disease
Correct Answers: Type 1 diabetes
• Longstanding hyperthyroidism
• Oral glucocorticoid use for > 3 months
• Chronic malnutrition
• Chronic kidney disease
7. Which statements about folic acid are correct? Select all that apply.
A. All pregnant women should take 1 mcg folic acid daily.
B. When planning to become pregnant, women should take 0.4 mg folic acid daily.
C. Maternal folic acid use can prevent cleft palate in the developing fetus.
D. Maternal folic acid use can prevent neural tube defects in the developing fetus.
Correct Answers: When planning to become pregnant, women should take 0.4 mg folic acid
daily.
• Maternal folic acid use can prevent neural tube defects in the developing fetus.
8. Which of the following should the NP recognize as clues to domestic violence in a
pregnant patient?
A. Missed prenatal visits without notification
B. A partner who refuses to allow the patient to be examined in private
C. Bipolar disorder in the patient's partner
D. Poor eye contact by patient
E. Improbable injury or injuries in the pregnant patient
Correct Answers: Missed prenatal visits without notification
• A partner who refuses to allow the patient to be examined in private
• Improbable injury or injuries in the pregnant patient
9. Which one of the following statements indicates that the NP understands probable
pregnancy with a urine hG test?
A. in a normal pregnancy, urine and blood tests are about equally accurate.
B. If an ectopic pregnancy is suspected, a qualitative hG serum test should be ordered.
C. If a home urine test is positive, an in-office test is not needed.
D. Urine testing can be done as soon as a missed period occurs.
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions | Page 4
, APEA CEU FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Correct Answer: in a normal pregnancy, urine and blood tests are about equally accurate.
10. Which of the following vaccines are safe to administer to a pregnant patient? Select
all that apply.
A. Tetanus and diphtheria
B. Measles, mumps and rubella
C. 9-valent HPV
D. Influenza
E. Pneumococcal
Correct Answer: Tdap Flu
11. A 34-year-old woman presents with a complaint of lower right quadrant pain. Her last
menstrual period was 45 days ago. What should be in the differential diagnosis? Select
all that apply.
A. Cholecystitis
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Gastroenteritis
E. Ovarian cyst
Correct Answers: Urinary tract infection
• Ectopic pregnancy
• Gastroenteritis
• Ovarian cyst
12. A patient who is 11 weeks pregnant is taking fluoxetine (Prozac) for depression.
Should any adjustments be made to this therapy?
A. Yes. Discontinue fluoxetine and consider sertraline (Zoloft).
B. Yes. Discontinue fluoxetine and start a tricyclic antidepressant.
C. No. Continue the fluoxetine at the same dose.
D. Yes. Continue the fluoxetine but reduce the dose.
Correct Answer: Yes. Discontinue fluoxetine and consider sertraline (Zoloft).
13. Which antibiotics are not contraindicated in pregnancy? SATA
A. Amoxicillin
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions | Page 5
, APEA CEU FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS
B. Levofloxacin
C. Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole
D. Doxycycline
E. Cefalexin
Correct Answers: Amoxicillin
• Cefalexin
14. Which statements about gestational diabetes are correct? Select all that apply.
A. Screening for gestational diabetes should be conducted in the second trimester.
B. One abnormal reading on the 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is considered
diagnostic for gestational diabetes
C. Gestational diabetes affects about 18% of pregnant women.
D. Gestational diabetes is associated with maternal and fetal abnormalities.
Correct Answers: Screening for gestational diabetes should be conducted in the second
trimester.
• Gestational diabetes affects about 18% of pregnant women.
• Gestational diabetes is associated with maternal and fetal abnormalities.
15. Which one of the following is not a symptom of ectopic pregnancy?
A. Lower abdominal pain
B. High fever
C. Vaginal bleeding
D. Missed menses
Correct Answer: High fever
16. A pregnant mother is Rh negative. When should she receive RhoGAM (anti D immune
globulin)? Select all that apply.
A. At the time pregnancy is diagnosed
B. At 12 to 14 weeks' gestation
C. At about 28 weeks' gestation
D. During each trimester
E. Within 72 hours of delivery
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions | Page 6
, APEA CEU FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Correct Answers: At 28 weeks
• Within 72 hours
17. A pregnant mother who is Rh negative experienced a suspected miscarriage early
this morning. Her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. How should this patient be
managed today?
A. She does not require RhoGAM (anti D immune globulin).
B. She should receive RhoGAM now.
C. She does not need RhoGAM because the miscarriage did not occur in the second
trimester.
D. She does not need RhoGAM because the miscarriage did not occur in the third trimester.
Correct Answer: She should receive RhoGAM now.
18. Which of the following are signs of preterm labor? Select all that apply.
A. Low or dull backache
B. Increased uterine activity
C. Menstruation-like cramps
D. Constipation
E. Vaginal spotting or bleeding
Correct Answers: Low or dull backache
• Increased uterine activity
• Menstruation-like cramps
• Vaginal spotting or bleeding
19. What statements are true about placenta previa? Select all that apply.
A. It causes painless vaginal bleeding.
B. It usually occurs in the second trimester.
C. Obstetric referral is not needed unless the symptoms worsen.
D. It may progress to placenta abruptio.
Correct Answers: It causes painless vaginal bleeding.
• It usually occurs in the second trimester.
• It may progress to placenta abruptio.
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions | Page 7
, APEA CEU FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS
20. According to the CDC, what is the recommended daily dose of folic acid for pregnant
women?
A. 0.5 mcg (500 mg) per day
B. 1,000 mcg (1 mg) per day
C. 0.4 mcg (400 mg) per day
D. 2,000 mcg (2 mg) per day
Correct Answer: 1,000 mcg (1 mg) per day
21. Which statement is not true about ectopic pregnancy?
A. Fallopian tube rupture may occur shortly after the onset of symptoms.
B. Symptoms typically develop about 6-8 weeks after the last menstrual period.
C. Serum hCG levels double every 24-72 hours.
D. Lower abdominal pain may occur on the right or left side.
Correct Answer: Serum hCG levels double every 24-72 hours.
22. Folic acid is recommended prior to and during the first 3 months of pregnancy to
prevent neural tube defects. Which of the following answer choices are examples of
neural tube defects? Select all that apply.
A. Cleft palate
B. Spina bifida
C. Anencephaly
D. Encephalocele
Correct Answers: Spina bifida
• Anencephaly
• Encephalocele
23. A patient has a fundal height measurement of 32 cm. Which of the following is a
correct statement about this patient?
A. She is 14-18 weeks pregnant.
B. She is 18-22 weeks pregnant.
C. She is 32 weeks pregnant.
D. She is at term and ready to deliver.
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions | Page 8
, APEA CEU FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Correct Answer: She is 32 weeks pregnant.
24. The uterine fundus should be palpable at 20 weeks' gestation
A. at the level of the umbilicus.
B. just above the level of the symphysis pubis.
C. midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus.
D. below the symphysis pubis.
Correct Answer: at the level of the umbilicus.
25. A patient who is 14 days postpartum has a positive screen for depression. What is
this patient's most likely diagnosis?
A. Postpartum "blues"
B. Postpartum depression
C. Major depressive disorder
D. Postpartum psychosis
Correct Answer: Postpartum depression
26. Common side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include:
SATA
A. diarrhea.
B. nausea.
C. sexual dysfunction.
D. somnolence.
E. weight loss.
Correct Answers: diarrhea.
• nausea.
• sexual dysfunction.
• somnolence.
27. Amsel's criteria for bacterial vaginosis (BV) diagnosis include: SATA
A. homogenous white discharge coating the vulva/vagina.
B. vaginal pH of >4.7.
C. fishy odor of vaginal discharge before or after addition of KOH ("whiff test"). clue cells on
microscopic exam.
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions | Page 9
, APEA CEU FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Correct Answers: homogenous white discharge coating the vulva/vagina.
• vaginal pH of >4.7.
• fishy odor of vaginal discharge before or after addition of KOH ("whiff test"). clue cells on
microscopic exam.
28. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (POS) reflects an excess of which hormone?
A. Androgen
B. Estrogen
C. Testosterone
D. Progestin
Correct Answer: Androgen
29. What is the most common causative agent in mononucleosis?
A. Adenovirus
B. Coxsackie B virus
C. Epstein Barr virus
D. Herpes simplex virus
Correct Answer: Epstein Barr virus
30. What is the instrument used to measure intraocular pressure?
A. Dermatoscope
B. Ophthalmoscope
C. Tonometer
D. Pachymeter
Correct Answer: Tonometer
31. Which of the following is the most useful to a clinician in making a correct diagnosis
of asthma?
A. Chest X-ray
B. Spirometry
C. Peak flow monitoring
D. History
Correct Answer: Spirometry
APEA CEU FNP Practice Questions | Page 10
