ANCC FNP
Board-Prep Qs & Review Terms
900+ Prep Qs & Review Terms
Board-Exam Preparation
Main Features:
• Focused ANCC FNP board-exam review
• Board-Prep Questions and Review Terms
• Extensive collection of practice questions
• Helpful for identifying knowledge gaps
• Covers high-yield concepts
• Supports structured study and final revision
,1. Iliopsoas muscle test
• Client raises right leg- examiner pushes down on right thigh
• Does client c/o pain in RLQ?
2. unilateral nasal discharge
foreign body
3. A child sees the world in egocentric terms at this stage and accomplishes mental
operations by linking them with concrete objects. Toward the end of this stage, intuitive
reasoning emerges. What Piaget stage is this?
Preoperational stage.
4. An assessment of family structure and roles is part of a comprehensive health history
assessment and includes the following:
Family (household) composition
5. Bell's Palsy (CN ___)
VII
6. Breast milk and formula have ___ calories per ounce.
20
7. Patient with breast buds and sparse public hair, and the areolas have started to
enlarge. Tanner Stage ___.
2
8. PE of allergic rhinitis includes: 1. 2. 3. 4.
Chemosis Dark circles under the eyes Pale, boggy nasal mucosa
9. ____ is heard best at the apex or left lower sternal border with the bell.
S3
10. According to the CDC, prostate screening should be individualized and based on
discussion of risks and benefits that occur between the ages of __ and __.
55 69
,11. Estimated delivery date (EDD)
Subtract 3 months and add 7 days to date of LMP.
12. CAGE questions patient is a ____.
young adolescent or older
13. Radial-digital grasp, rhythmic bite and release pattern, and bouncing while being held
occurs in months ___.
7-8
14. Motor development 2yrs - 3 yrs
Walking with control Walking upstairs with help Rolling or tossing a ball
15. Historical elements of the H&P include: 1. 2. 3. 4.
Social development Motor development Household Environmental history
16. ___ is a low-pitched heart sound that occurs early in diastole, immediately after S2
and before S4.
S3
17. ____, or age-related hearing loss, is the most frequent cause of sensory hearing loss
and is progressive.
Presbycusis
18. ___ reflex is normal in children up to 24 months.
Babinski (plantar)
19. Developmental red flags include ___ movements.
asymmetric
20. The ____ skin is a bluish discoloration of the cervix from venous congestion and can
be observed starting between the 8th and 10th week of pregnancy.
Chadwick
21. Murphy's sign
Pain with palplation of gall bladder (seen with cholecystitis)
22. Common causes of pancreatitis are 1. 2. 3. 4.
Alcohol abuse Gallstones HLD Hyperparathyroidism
,23. A murmur that is loud - particularly at the base - harsh, and pansystolic; it is heard
best at the left sternal board (3rd to 5th intercostal space); it does not radiate to the axilla
VSD
24. A murmur heard best at the LLSB; begins with S1; it is high-pitched and smooth and
has a blowing sound.
Tricuspid regurgitation
25. hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
A murmur heard best at the left sternal border with no radiation, and a mid-systolic
murmur that increases with Valsalva maneuver and decreases with the patient
squatting.
26. pulmonic stenosis
A murmur heard best at the LSSB 2nd-3rd intercostal space with variable intensity,
medium pitched, and occurs midsystolic; begins in S1 with a crescendoing,
decrescendoing contour and is associated with a thrill.
27. Abdominal location of pancreatitis
epigastric region of the abdomen.
28. Frontal lobe lesion
intellectual and cognitive decline, anosmia, personality changes
29. Temporal lobe lesion
Emotional and behavioral changes, auditory hallucinations; receptive aphasia
30. Parietal lobe lesion
Contralateral sensory loss; loss of tactile discrimination (astereognosis); right-left
confusion
31. Abdominal region for splenomegaly
left lumbar region of abdomen
32. Grade 1 Murmur
faint, may not be heard in all positions
33. Grade 6 murmur
Very loud, with thrill. May be heard with stethoscope entirely off the chest
,34. Grade 5 murmur
Very loud, with thrill. May be heard when the stethoscope is partly off the chest
35. Grade 4 murmur
loud with palpable thrill
36. Perforated septum causes 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
nasal surgery Chronic infection Repeated trauma from picking Cosmetic piercings
Cocaine abuse Exposure to toxins
37. bronchovesicular breath sounds (equal length for inspiratory and expiratory phases)
indicates _____ and possible ___.
consolidation pneumonia
38. Chest pain lasting a new seconds is usually ____.
Not cardiac in origin.
39. Neoplastic diseases most frequently causing hypercalcemia are 1. 2. 3.
multiple myeloma lymphoma tumors producing parathyroid (PTH)-related proteins
(ovary, kidney, and lung)
40. Presbyopia:
an age-related refractive error that results in visual impairment.
41. Symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis include
itching tearing redness stringy discharge
42. A1c of 5.7 - 6.4 represents diagnostic criterion for
impaired glucose tolerance
43. Cerumen impaction causes ___ hearing loss.
conduction due to the decrease in sound transmission caused by mechanical
blockage of the external canal.
44. _____ lesions are common Crohn's diseases but absent in UC.
Perianal
45. Key diagnostic for UC.
Sigmoidoscopy
,46. Hemochromatosis
hereditary disorder with an excessive buildup of iron deposits in the body Elevated
Hgb, Hct, AST, ALT Bronze skin
47. Blood diarrhea, lower adominal pain, and negative stool cultures are the hallmark of
___.
UC
48. Diagnosis of lymphoma is made by ___.
tissue biopsy
49. Chronic iron deficiency anemia
low Hgb & Hct low MCH & MCH
50. PKU Screening -When is best
24-72 hours after birth
51. ____ will indicate the area of cardiac muscle damage or strain.
Summation of vector impulses
52. Macular degeneration causes loss of ___.
central vision
53. Manual BP of 8 month old is 115/78 signifies
Significant hypertension. Secondary causes of HTN should be sought.
54. ABI < ___ indicates PAD
0.9
55. Delirium risk factors: 1. 2. 3.
polypharmacy hypoxemia recent flu w/fever
56. Positive for DM2
Random glucose > 200 plus sx of polyuria, polydipsia, wt loss Fasting blood glucose
>126 FBG > 126 on 2 occassions
57. ______ : fawn-colored plaques up to 2 cm in diameter, with a herald patch. Lesions
follow cleavage lines in a Christmas tree pattern.
Pityriasis rosea
,58. ____ : waxy appearance, slow growth, and size of 1 to 2 cm, with telangiectatic
vessels best seen with traction at the sides of the lesions.
Basal cell carcinoma
59. Asthma stage 2: mild persistent
Symptoms twice a week, not daily Nighttime symptoms 3-4 times a month SABA > 2
days a week, not daily FEV1 80% or FEV1/FVC normal
60. Occurs predominantly < 2 yrs old; has a 2week prodrome of malaise, paroxysmal
cough, coryza, anorexia; is managed with macrolide or TMP-SMX.
Bordetella pertusis
61. Risk factors for delirium
Hypoxemia Recent flu infection w/fever Polypharmacy
62. Scarlet fever is caused by ____. It has a characteristic _____ rash that blanche with
pressure.
sandpaper
63. Cardiovascular disease in women under the age of 50:
higher mortality rate than males.
64. Risk factor for carotid stenosis
Smoking Elevated plasma homocysteine Systolic hypertension
65. _____ should be corrected with refractory hypokalemia.
Magnesium
66. Therapeutic anticoagulation is required for at least ____ weeks before cardioversion
of atrial fibrillation.
3
67. According to JNC9, Black populations should be treated with _____ diuretics and
____.
thiazide Calcium Channel Blockers
68. Category B drugs
Animal reproduction studies have not shown a fetal risk or adverse effect. Risks have
not been confirmed in controlled studies in women.
,69. Category C drugs
Adverse effects reports in animal fetus; information for humans not available.
70. Category D drugs
Possible fetal risk in humans has been reported; however, in selected cases
consideration of the potential benefit vs risk may warrant use of these drugs in
pregnant women.
71. Category A drugs
controlled studies in women fail to show a risk to the fetus and the possibility of fetal
harm appears unlikely
72. Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)
A vaginal infection caused by bacterial microorganisms; it is the most common form
of vaginitis among U.S. women.
73. bacterial vaginosis treatment
Metronidazole
74. The foundational aspects of culture are initially internalized by what age?
5 years
75. According to the CDC, cholesterol screening should begin at age ____ and should be
drawn periodically every _____ years.
20 5
76. ____ or ____ can exacerbate asthma.
ASA, NSAIDs
77. Elevated lipoprotein (a) should be treated with ___.
antisense oligonucleotides
78. Patients with LVH should be prescribed ____ and ____ post MI.
ACEI, Beta-blockers
79. _____ may present with unilateral HA, photophobia, blurred vision, and nausea and is
considered an emergency.
Primary acute angle-closure glaucoma
,80. PTT reflects the _____ pathway for coagulation and is used to monitor heparin.
intrinsic
81. Mycoplasma pneumoniae treatment
macrolides (azithromycin), doxycycline, fluoroquinolones
82. Floroquinolones
Ciprofloxacin Levofloxacin
83. Partial-thickness burns of more than 10% BSA require 1. 2.
transportation to a burn center tetanus immunization is up to date
84. Young adult with no prior immunizations should receive
HepB MMR HPV Varicella
85. Newborns receive HBV at ___, ____, and ____.
birth 1 month 6 months
86. ___ and ___ vaccines should be avoided during pregnancy because ____.
Varicella MMR live vaccines
87. Antiviral therapy medications should be started within _____ hrs for herpes zoster.
72
88. CDC recommends applying SPF of ___ at least ____ mins and reapply every ____ hrs.
15 20 2
89. Community Acquired Pneumonia treatment following recent antibiotic treatment of
nitrofurantoin for UTI.
Amoxicillin/Clavulanate
90. Prehospital care for ACS includes 1. 2. 3. 4.
rest O2 ASA nitroglycerine
91. The appropriate initial treatment in a stable patient is ____ with ___.
heart rate control anticoagulation
92. ____ are contraindicated for patients with renal stenosis.
ACEI (e.g. lisinopril)
, 93. The best initial and primary treatment of tricuspid stenosis is _____ with ____.
reduction of fluid congestion diuretics
94. VSS, PE unremarkable, vomiting blood, no ABD pain or other sx. PMH GERD,
cirrhosis, osteoarthritis. Next step?
Check Hgb
95. USPSTF recommends ___ screening for men aged 65-75 years who have a smoking
history.
AAA ultrasound
96. Costochondritis treatment
NSAIDs (e.g., Naproxen)
97. ____ with DM1 should be managed by an endocrinologist.
Athletes
98. Simple nosebleed treatment at home.
Oxymetazoline nasal spray Compressive therapy
99. 12 yo soccer player, proximal tibial tenderness (bilateral), no erythema, no effusion,
no laxity, and pain.
Osgood-Schlatter disease
100. Osgood-Schlatter Disease
gradual pain of the anterior knee and proximal tibial that is exacerbated by running,
squatting, or walking
101. Previously unimmunized adult patients should receive the Tdap vaccine 1. 2.
all adults 19 yo or older single Every 10 years as routine immunization
102. HPV vaccine should be offered to patients between the ages of ___ and __ years old.
9, 26
103. MenACWY recommendations
all preteens teens 11 to 12 with booster at 16 increased risk of disese
104. tine versicolor treatment
topical antifungal
Board-Prep Qs & Review Terms
900+ Prep Qs & Review Terms
Board-Exam Preparation
Main Features:
• Focused ANCC FNP board-exam review
• Board-Prep Questions and Review Terms
• Extensive collection of practice questions
• Helpful for identifying knowledge gaps
• Covers high-yield concepts
• Supports structured study and final revision
,1. Iliopsoas muscle test
• Client raises right leg- examiner pushes down on right thigh
• Does client c/o pain in RLQ?
2. unilateral nasal discharge
foreign body
3. A child sees the world in egocentric terms at this stage and accomplishes mental
operations by linking them with concrete objects. Toward the end of this stage, intuitive
reasoning emerges. What Piaget stage is this?
Preoperational stage.
4. An assessment of family structure and roles is part of a comprehensive health history
assessment and includes the following:
Family (household) composition
5. Bell's Palsy (CN ___)
VII
6. Breast milk and formula have ___ calories per ounce.
20
7. Patient with breast buds and sparse public hair, and the areolas have started to
enlarge. Tanner Stage ___.
2
8. PE of allergic rhinitis includes: 1. 2. 3. 4.
Chemosis Dark circles under the eyes Pale, boggy nasal mucosa
9. ____ is heard best at the apex or left lower sternal border with the bell.
S3
10. According to the CDC, prostate screening should be individualized and based on
discussion of risks and benefits that occur between the ages of __ and __.
55 69
,11. Estimated delivery date (EDD)
Subtract 3 months and add 7 days to date of LMP.
12. CAGE questions patient is a ____.
young adolescent or older
13. Radial-digital grasp, rhythmic bite and release pattern, and bouncing while being held
occurs in months ___.
7-8
14. Motor development 2yrs - 3 yrs
Walking with control Walking upstairs with help Rolling or tossing a ball
15. Historical elements of the H&P include: 1. 2. 3. 4.
Social development Motor development Household Environmental history
16. ___ is a low-pitched heart sound that occurs early in diastole, immediately after S2
and before S4.
S3
17. ____, or age-related hearing loss, is the most frequent cause of sensory hearing loss
and is progressive.
Presbycusis
18. ___ reflex is normal in children up to 24 months.
Babinski (plantar)
19. Developmental red flags include ___ movements.
asymmetric
20. The ____ skin is a bluish discoloration of the cervix from venous congestion and can
be observed starting between the 8th and 10th week of pregnancy.
Chadwick
21. Murphy's sign
Pain with palplation of gall bladder (seen with cholecystitis)
22. Common causes of pancreatitis are 1. 2. 3. 4.
Alcohol abuse Gallstones HLD Hyperparathyroidism
,23. A murmur that is loud - particularly at the base - harsh, and pansystolic; it is heard
best at the left sternal board (3rd to 5th intercostal space); it does not radiate to the axilla
VSD
24. A murmur heard best at the LLSB; begins with S1; it is high-pitched and smooth and
has a blowing sound.
Tricuspid regurgitation
25. hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
A murmur heard best at the left sternal border with no radiation, and a mid-systolic
murmur that increases with Valsalva maneuver and decreases with the patient
squatting.
26. pulmonic stenosis
A murmur heard best at the LSSB 2nd-3rd intercostal space with variable intensity,
medium pitched, and occurs midsystolic; begins in S1 with a crescendoing,
decrescendoing contour and is associated with a thrill.
27. Abdominal location of pancreatitis
epigastric region of the abdomen.
28. Frontal lobe lesion
intellectual and cognitive decline, anosmia, personality changes
29. Temporal lobe lesion
Emotional and behavioral changes, auditory hallucinations; receptive aphasia
30. Parietal lobe lesion
Contralateral sensory loss; loss of tactile discrimination (astereognosis); right-left
confusion
31. Abdominal region for splenomegaly
left lumbar region of abdomen
32. Grade 1 Murmur
faint, may not be heard in all positions
33. Grade 6 murmur
Very loud, with thrill. May be heard with stethoscope entirely off the chest
,34. Grade 5 murmur
Very loud, with thrill. May be heard when the stethoscope is partly off the chest
35. Grade 4 murmur
loud with palpable thrill
36. Perforated septum causes 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
nasal surgery Chronic infection Repeated trauma from picking Cosmetic piercings
Cocaine abuse Exposure to toxins
37. bronchovesicular breath sounds (equal length for inspiratory and expiratory phases)
indicates _____ and possible ___.
consolidation pneumonia
38. Chest pain lasting a new seconds is usually ____.
Not cardiac in origin.
39. Neoplastic diseases most frequently causing hypercalcemia are 1. 2. 3.
multiple myeloma lymphoma tumors producing parathyroid (PTH)-related proteins
(ovary, kidney, and lung)
40. Presbyopia:
an age-related refractive error that results in visual impairment.
41. Symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis include
itching tearing redness stringy discharge
42. A1c of 5.7 - 6.4 represents diagnostic criterion for
impaired glucose tolerance
43. Cerumen impaction causes ___ hearing loss.
conduction due to the decrease in sound transmission caused by mechanical
blockage of the external canal.
44. _____ lesions are common Crohn's diseases but absent in UC.
Perianal
45. Key diagnostic for UC.
Sigmoidoscopy
,46. Hemochromatosis
hereditary disorder with an excessive buildup of iron deposits in the body Elevated
Hgb, Hct, AST, ALT Bronze skin
47. Blood diarrhea, lower adominal pain, and negative stool cultures are the hallmark of
___.
UC
48. Diagnosis of lymphoma is made by ___.
tissue biopsy
49. Chronic iron deficiency anemia
low Hgb & Hct low MCH & MCH
50. PKU Screening -When is best
24-72 hours after birth
51. ____ will indicate the area of cardiac muscle damage or strain.
Summation of vector impulses
52. Macular degeneration causes loss of ___.
central vision
53. Manual BP of 8 month old is 115/78 signifies
Significant hypertension. Secondary causes of HTN should be sought.
54. ABI < ___ indicates PAD
0.9
55. Delirium risk factors: 1. 2. 3.
polypharmacy hypoxemia recent flu w/fever
56. Positive for DM2
Random glucose > 200 plus sx of polyuria, polydipsia, wt loss Fasting blood glucose
>126 FBG > 126 on 2 occassions
57. ______ : fawn-colored plaques up to 2 cm in diameter, with a herald patch. Lesions
follow cleavage lines in a Christmas tree pattern.
Pityriasis rosea
,58. ____ : waxy appearance, slow growth, and size of 1 to 2 cm, with telangiectatic
vessels best seen with traction at the sides of the lesions.
Basal cell carcinoma
59. Asthma stage 2: mild persistent
Symptoms twice a week, not daily Nighttime symptoms 3-4 times a month SABA > 2
days a week, not daily FEV1 80% or FEV1/FVC normal
60. Occurs predominantly < 2 yrs old; has a 2week prodrome of malaise, paroxysmal
cough, coryza, anorexia; is managed with macrolide or TMP-SMX.
Bordetella pertusis
61. Risk factors for delirium
Hypoxemia Recent flu infection w/fever Polypharmacy
62. Scarlet fever is caused by ____. It has a characteristic _____ rash that blanche with
pressure.
sandpaper
63. Cardiovascular disease in women under the age of 50:
higher mortality rate than males.
64. Risk factor for carotid stenosis
Smoking Elevated plasma homocysteine Systolic hypertension
65. _____ should be corrected with refractory hypokalemia.
Magnesium
66. Therapeutic anticoagulation is required for at least ____ weeks before cardioversion
of atrial fibrillation.
3
67. According to JNC9, Black populations should be treated with _____ diuretics and
____.
thiazide Calcium Channel Blockers
68. Category B drugs
Animal reproduction studies have not shown a fetal risk or adverse effect. Risks have
not been confirmed in controlled studies in women.
,69. Category C drugs
Adverse effects reports in animal fetus; information for humans not available.
70. Category D drugs
Possible fetal risk in humans has been reported; however, in selected cases
consideration of the potential benefit vs risk may warrant use of these drugs in
pregnant women.
71. Category A drugs
controlled studies in women fail to show a risk to the fetus and the possibility of fetal
harm appears unlikely
72. Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)
A vaginal infection caused by bacterial microorganisms; it is the most common form
of vaginitis among U.S. women.
73. bacterial vaginosis treatment
Metronidazole
74. The foundational aspects of culture are initially internalized by what age?
5 years
75. According to the CDC, cholesterol screening should begin at age ____ and should be
drawn periodically every _____ years.
20 5
76. ____ or ____ can exacerbate asthma.
ASA, NSAIDs
77. Elevated lipoprotein (a) should be treated with ___.
antisense oligonucleotides
78. Patients with LVH should be prescribed ____ and ____ post MI.
ACEI, Beta-blockers
79. _____ may present with unilateral HA, photophobia, blurred vision, and nausea and is
considered an emergency.
Primary acute angle-closure glaucoma
,80. PTT reflects the _____ pathway for coagulation and is used to monitor heparin.
intrinsic
81. Mycoplasma pneumoniae treatment
macrolides (azithromycin), doxycycline, fluoroquinolones
82. Floroquinolones
Ciprofloxacin Levofloxacin
83. Partial-thickness burns of more than 10% BSA require 1. 2.
transportation to a burn center tetanus immunization is up to date
84. Young adult with no prior immunizations should receive
HepB MMR HPV Varicella
85. Newborns receive HBV at ___, ____, and ____.
birth 1 month 6 months
86. ___ and ___ vaccines should be avoided during pregnancy because ____.
Varicella MMR live vaccines
87. Antiviral therapy medications should be started within _____ hrs for herpes zoster.
72
88. CDC recommends applying SPF of ___ at least ____ mins and reapply every ____ hrs.
15 20 2
89. Community Acquired Pneumonia treatment following recent antibiotic treatment of
nitrofurantoin for UTI.
Amoxicillin/Clavulanate
90. Prehospital care for ACS includes 1. 2. 3. 4.
rest O2 ASA nitroglycerine
91. The appropriate initial treatment in a stable patient is ____ with ___.
heart rate control anticoagulation
92. ____ are contraindicated for patients with renal stenosis.
ACEI (e.g. lisinopril)
, 93. The best initial and primary treatment of tricuspid stenosis is _____ with ____.
reduction of fluid congestion diuretics
94. VSS, PE unremarkable, vomiting blood, no ABD pain or other sx. PMH GERD,
cirrhosis, osteoarthritis. Next step?
Check Hgb
95. USPSTF recommends ___ screening for men aged 65-75 years who have a smoking
history.
AAA ultrasound
96. Costochondritis treatment
NSAIDs (e.g., Naproxen)
97. ____ with DM1 should be managed by an endocrinologist.
Athletes
98. Simple nosebleed treatment at home.
Oxymetazoline nasal spray Compressive therapy
99. 12 yo soccer player, proximal tibial tenderness (bilateral), no erythema, no effusion,
no laxity, and pain.
Osgood-Schlatter disease
100. Osgood-Schlatter Disease
gradual pain of the anterior knee and proximal tibial that is exacerbated by running,
squatting, or walking
101. Previously unimmunized adult patients should receive the Tdap vaccine 1. 2.
all adults 19 yo or older single Every 10 years as routine immunization
102. HPV vaccine should be offered to patients between the ages of ___ and __ years old.
9, 26
103. MenACWY recommendations
all preteens teens 11 to 12 with booster at 16 increased risk of disese
104. tine versicolor treatment
topical antifungal
