ANCC FNP
Board-Prep Qs & Review Terms
900+ Prep Qs & Review Terms
Board-Exam Preparation
Main Features:
• Focused ANCC FNP board-exam review
• Board-Prep Questions and Review Terms
• Extensive collection of practice questions
• Helpful for identifying knowledge gaps
• Covers high-yield concepts
• Supports structured study and final revision
,1. Reddish to purple-colored lesion that increases rapidly in size. May have bullae.
Infected area appears indurated ("woody" induration) with complaints of severe pain on
affected site.
Necrotizing Fasciitis (“Flesh-Eating” Bacteria)
2. Disease causing the most deaths overall:
Heart disease
3. Steroids - plasma transport
Transported in blood bound to plasma carrier proteins due to limited solubility
4. Cancer with the highest mortality in males and females:
Lung cancer
5. Most common cause of death in adolescents:
Motor vehicle crashes
6. Most common cancer in females:
Breast cancer
7. Most common cancer in males:
Prostate cancer
8. Most common type of cancer overall (males/females):
Skin cancer
9. Most common type of skin cancer (males/females):
Basal cell cancer
10. Skin cancer with the highest mortality:
Melanoma
11. Gynecological cancer (vulva, vagina, cervix, uterus, ovary):
Uterine/endometrial cancer (most common gynecological cancer) Ovarian cancer
(second most common gynecological cancer)
,12. A 45-year-old female patient complains of a sore throat. Upon examination, the NP
notices a bony growth midline at the hard palate of the mouth. The patient denies any
changes or pain. It is not red, tender, or swollen. She reports a history of the same
growth for many years without any change. Which of the following conditions is most
likely?
A. Torus palatinus
B. Geographic tongue
C. Acute glossitis
D. Leukoplakia
Correct A. Torus palatinus
Source Explanation: Best Clues The description of a chronic bony growth located midline in
the hard palate indicates torus palatinus. Rule out glossitis, geographic tongue, and hairy
leukoplakia because they are all located on the tongue and not on the hard palate (roof of the
mouth).
13. A torus palatinus is a
benign growth of bone (an exostosis) located midline on the hard palate and covered
with normal oral skin. It is painless and does not interfere with function.
14. A "geographic tongue" has
multiple fissures and irregular smoother areas on its surface that make it look like a
topographic map. The patient may complain of soreness on the tongue after eating or
drinking acidic or hot foods.
15. Leukoplakia is not
a benign variant. It appears as a slow-growing white plaque that has a firm to hard
surface that is slightly raised on the tongue or inside the mouth. It is considered a
precancerous lesion. It is due to chronic irritation of the skin or precancerous changes
on the tongue and inside the cheeks. Its causes include poorly fitting dentures,
chewing tobacco (snuff), and using other types of tobacco. Refer the patient for a
biopsy because it can sometimes become malignant.
16. Oral hairy leukoplakia (OHL) of the tongue is a
painless white patch (or patches) that appears corrugated. It is usually located on the
lateral aspects of the tongue (or other areas inside the mouth) and is associated with
HIV and AIDS infection. It is caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection of the
tongue. It is not considered a premalignant lesion.
,17. USPSTF (2018) currently recommends that a screening baseline mammogram (with or
without clinical breast exam) start at age ____ years and then every __ years until the age
of ___ years.
50; 2; 74
18. What is the USPSTF screening recommendation for ovarian cancer?
A. Annual bimanual pelvic exam with pelvic ultrasound
B. Pelvic and intravaginal ultrasound
C. Intravaginal ultrasound with CA-125 tumor marker
D. The USPSTF does not recommend routine screening of women for ovarian cancer (Grade
D)
Correct D. The USPSTF does not recommend routine screening of
Source Explanation: women for ovarian cancer (Grade D)
19. If there is a case scenario of an older woman who complains of vague
abdominal/pelvic symptoms (stomach bloating, low-back ache, constipation) and is
found to have a palpable ovary during the bimanual exam, rule out ______.
ovarian cancer
20. Always rule out ovarian cancer in a postmenopausal woman who has a ___.
palpable ovary
21. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Breast cancer (2018)
Baseline mammogram at age 50 years Screen every 2 years until age 74 years
(biennial) After age 75 years (insufficient evidence)
22. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Cervical cancer (2018)
Baseline Pap smear/cytology at age 21 years (do not screen younger) Screen every 3
years until age 65 years; at age 30-65 years, another option is to screen every 5 years
using hrHPV testing alone or in combination with cytology (cotesting).
23. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Lung cancer (2013)
Aged 55-80 years with 30 pack-year history of smoking or quit smoking up to 15 years
previously Annual screening with LDCT
24. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Hysterectomy (no cervix)
Do not screen (if no history of precancer or cervical cancer).
,25. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Prostate cancer (2018)
Aged 55-69 years, PSA-based screening should be individualized; ≥70 years, against
prostate cancer screening.
26. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Colorectal cancer (2016)
Baseline screening at age 50 years Use high-sensitivity fecal occult blood test (yearly)
or sigmoidoscopy (every 5 years) or colonoscopy (every 10 years) from age 50 to 75
years; aged 76–85 years, individualize.
27. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Skin cancer (2016)
Current evidence insufficient to assess benefits/harms of visual skin exam. Educate
fair-skinned persons to avoid sunlight (10 a.m.-3 p.m.) and use sunblock ≥SPF 15.
28. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Tobacco smoking (2020)
Ask all adults about tobacco use, advise them to stop smoking, and provide behavioral
interventions/pharmacotherapy (if not pregnant) for smoking cessation.
29. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Fall prevention in community-dwelling older adults
(2018)
Adults aged ≥65 years, exercise interventions to prevent falls in adults at increased
risk; against vitamin D supplementation.
30. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Ovarian cancer (2018)
Routine screening is not recommended. High-risk (BRCA mutation, family history of
breast/ovarian cancer) are screened by specialist; refer for genetic counseling.
31. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Abdominal aortic aneurysm (2019)
One-time screening (men aged 65-75 years) for cigarette smokers or those who have
quit. Screening test is ultrasound of abdomen.
,32. A 65 yo F smoker presents w/PMH of Barrett's esophagus GERD. The patient reports
prescription for esomeprazole (Nexium) 40 mg daily ran out a few days ago. She is
complaining of severe heartburn & sore throat. During the PE, the NP notes an
erythematous posterior pharynx w/o tonsillar d/c & mild dental enamel loss. What is the
best initial action?
A. Refer the patient to an oncologist for a biopsy to rule out esophageal cancer.
B. Give the patient a refill of her proton-pump inhibitor (PPI) pr
Correct B. Give the patient a refill of her proton-pump inhibitor (PPI)
Source Explanation: prescription and advise her to schedule an appointment with her
gastroenterologist. Best Clues Rule out option A because the patient is already under the
care of a gastroenterologist. OTC ranitidine (Zantac) is not potent enough to control the
symptoms of erosive esophagitis. A PPI is the preferred treatment for erosive esophagitis. Do
not switch the patient to another brand of PPI. Her worsening symptoms are due to rebound
caused by abrupt cessation of PPI. The best initial action in this case is to refill the PPI
prescription because the patient is fully symptomatic (erosive esophagitis) until she can see
her gastroenterologist.
33. Barrett's esophagus is the "precancerous" lesion of esophageal cancer. It is best
managed by a
gastroenterologist (not an oncologist).
34. Patients with Barrett's esophagus are treated with high-dose ____ for a "lifetime."
PPIs
35. Tanner Stages Girls Stage I: Stage II: Stage III: Stage IV: Stage V:
Prepubertal pattern Breast bud and areola start to develop. Breast continues to grow
with nipples/areola (one mound/no separation). Nipples and areola become elevated
from the breast (a secondary mound). Adult pattern
,36. Tanner Stages Boys Stage I: Prepubertal pattern Stage II: Testes and scrotum start to
enlarge (scrotal skin starts to get darker/more rugae). Stage III: Penis grows longer
(length) and testes/scrotum continues to become larger. Stage IV: Penis become wider
and continues growing in length (testes are larger with darker scrotal skin and more
rugae). Stage V: Adult pattern
• Stage I: Prepubertal pattern
• Stage II: Testes and scrotum start to enlarge (scrotal skin starts to get darker/more rugae).
• Stage III: Penis grows longer (length) and testes/scrotum continues to become larger.
• Stage IV: Penis become wider and continues growing in length (testes are larger with
darker scrotal skin and more rugae).
• Stage V: Adult pattern
37. A 14-year-old boy is brought in by his mother for a physical exam. Both are
concerned about his breast enlargement. The teen denies breast tenderness. On physical
exam, the NP palpates soft breast tissue that is not tender. No dominant mass is noted.
The skin is smooth, and there is no nipple discharge with massage. The teen has a body
mass index (BMI) of 29. Which of the following statements is correct? A. Advise the
mother that the patient has physiologic gynecomastia and should return for a f
• D. Educate the mother that her son has pseudogynecomastia.
Best Clues The boy is very overweight (BMI 29) and is almost obese. The clinical
breast exam does not show palpable breast tissue. Instead, the breast palpation
reveals soft fatty tissue. It is wrong to “reassure” a patient or family member in the
exam (poor therapeutic communication technique).
38. Physiologic gynecomastia physical exam findings will show disklike breast tissue
that is _____ under each nipple/areola; the breast may be tender, and the breast can be
asymmetrical (one breast larger than the other).
mobile
39. A BMI of 25 to 29.9 is considered . Obesity is a BMI of .
overweight 30 or higher
,40. Which of the following foods are known to have high potassium content? Low-fat
yogurt, soft cheeses, and collard greens Aged cheese, red wine, and chocolate Potatoes,
apricots, and Brussels sprouts Black beans, red meat, and citrus juice
• C. Potatoes, apricots, and Brussels sprouts
Best Clues First, look at the answer options for inconsistencies in the list of foods.
Rule out option A because it is inconsistent and these foods do not contain high levels
of potassium: low-fat yogurt and soft cheeses (calcium) with collard greens (vitamin
K). Rule out option B because these foods have a high tyramine, not potassium,
content. Rule out option D because it is inconsistent. Although citrus juices are high in
potassium, both black beans and red meat are not (iron). If options A, B, and D are
incorrect, then the only one left is option C (potatoes, apricots, and Brussels sprouts).
A large number of fruits and vegetables are rich in potassium and vitamins.
41. Diseases that are selected for case management are usually ____ conditions, such as
asthma, congestive heart failure (CHF), HIV infection, and chronic psychiatric conditions.
A good outcome will show ____ and ___ or ____.
chronic good symptom control no exacerbations hospitalizations
42. Danger Signals Cardiovascular System
Acute MI, unstable angina Heart failure Bacterial endocarditis Abdominal aortic
aneurysm (AAA)
43. Danger Signals Skin and Integumentary System
Angioedema/anaphylaxis Stevens-Johnson syndrome Meningococcemia Rocky
Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) Lyme disease Herpes zoster ophthalmicus Melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma
44. Danger Signals Gastrointestinal System
Acute abdomen (surgical abdomen) Acute appendicitis Acute pancreatitis Acute
diverticulitis Acute cholecystitis Clostridium difficile infection Colon cancer
45. Danger Signals Men’s Health
Testicular torsion Priapism Prostate cancer
46. Danger Signals Psychosocial Mental Health
Depression with suicidal plan Acute serotonin syndrome Malignant neuroleptic
syndrome
47. Danger Signals Nervous System
Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) Temporal arteritis headache Subarachnoid bleeding
Acute bacterial meningitis Subdural hematoma
,48. Danger Signals Head, Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat
Retinal detachment Orbital cellulitis Optic neuritis Peritonsillar abscess Battle sign
Herpes keratitis Temporal arteritis Acute angle-closure glaucoma
49. Danger Signals Pulmonary System
Anaphylaxis Severe asthmatic exacerbation (impending respiratory failure) Pulmonary
emboli CAP Lung cancer
50. Danger Signals Renal System
Acute pyelonephritis Acute renal failure Bladder cancer
51. Danger Signals Women’s Health
Dominant breast mass attached to surrounding tissue Ruptured tubal ectopic
pregnancy Paget's disease of the breast Ovarian cancer
52. An asthmatic male patient complains of a sudden onset of itching and coughing after
taking two aspirin tablets for a headache in the waiting room. The patient's lips and
eyelids are becoming swollen. The patient complains of feeling hot. Bright-red wheals are
noted on his chest and arms and legs. Which of the following is the best initial
intervention to follow? Call 911. Check the patient's BP, pulse, and temperature. Give an
injection of aqueous epinephrine 1:1,000 (1 mg/mL) 0.5 mg IM into
• C. Give an injection of aqueous epinephrine 1:1,000 dilution (1 mg/mL) 0.5 mg IM into the
vastus lateralis muscle immediately. Best Clues The quick onset of symptoms, such as
angioedema, after taking aspirin is a clue. The classic signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis
described in this case should be noted. Severe anaphylactic episodes occur almost
immediately or within 1 hour after exposure.
53. Patients with an atopic history (asthma, eczema, allergic rhinitis) with nasal polyps
are at higher risk for ____ and ___ allergies.
aspirin nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)
54. Anaphylaxis is classified as a _____ reaction.
type I IgE-dependent
55. Biphasic anaphylaxis occurs in up to __% of cases (symptoms recur within ___ hours
after initial episode). This is the reason why these patients are prescribed a ____ and a
____ after being discharged from the ED.
23 8-10 Medrol Dose Pack long-acting antihistamine
56. The most common triggers for anaphylaxis in children are ___.
foods
, 57. The most common triggers for anaphylaxis are ___ and ____ are the most common
triggers in adults.
medications insect stings
58. A 16-year-old boy presents to a community clinic accompanied by his grandmother,
who reports that he fell off his bike this morning. The patient now complains of a
headache with mild nausea. The patient's grandmother reports that he was not wearing a
helmet. The health history is uneventful. Which of the following statements is indicative
of an emergent condition? The patient complains of multiple painful abrasions that are
bleeding on his arms and legs. The patient complains of a headache tha
• D. The patient is having difficulty with following normal conversation and answering
questions.
Best Clues History of recent trauma that is followed by a headache with nausea. The
patient did not wear a bicycle helmet.
59. Which of the following drug classes is considered as first-line treatment for unipolar
depression in the elderly? SSRIs SNRIs Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) MAOIs
• A. SSRIs
Best Clues There are no obvious clues in this question. Answering it correctly is based
on your recognizing that unipolar depression is the same disease entity as
major/minor depression. Depression in bipolar patients is called bipolar depression.
SSRIs are the first-line treatment for unipolar/major depression. They carry an FDA
warning that they increase suicidality in children and young adults up to age 23 years.
TCAs have many anticholinergic effects (dry mouth, sedation, arrhythmias, confusion,
urinary retention, etc.). MAOIs have major food and drug interactions and are not
firstline drugs.
Board-Prep Qs & Review Terms
900+ Prep Qs & Review Terms
Board-Exam Preparation
Main Features:
• Focused ANCC FNP board-exam review
• Board-Prep Questions and Review Terms
• Extensive collection of practice questions
• Helpful for identifying knowledge gaps
• Covers high-yield concepts
• Supports structured study and final revision
,1. Reddish to purple-colored lesion that increases rapidly in size. May have bullae.
Infected area appears indurated ("woody" induration) with complaints of severe pain on
affected site.
Necrotizing Fasciitis (“Flesh-Eating” Bacteria)
2. Disease causing the most deaths overall:
Heart disease
3. Steroids - plasma transport
Transported in blood bound to plasma carrier proteins due to limited solubility
4. Cancer with the highest mortality in males and females:
Lung cancer
5. Most common cause of death in adolescents:
Motor vehicle crashes
6. Most common cancer in females:
Breast cancer
7. Most common cancer in males:
Prostate cancer
8. Most common type of cancer overall (males/females):
Skin cancer
9. Most common type of skin cancer (males/females):
Basal cell cancer
10. Skin cancer with the highest mortality:
Melanoma
11. Gynecological cancer (vulva, vagina, cervix, uterus, ovary):
Uterine/endometrial cancer (most common gynecological cancer) Ovarian cancer
(second most common gynecological cancer)
,12. A 45-year-old female patient complains of a sore throat. Upon examination, the NP
notices a bony growth midline at the hard palate of the mouth. The patient denies any
changes or pain. It is not red, tender, or swollen. She reports a history of the same
growth for many years without any change. Which of the following conditions is most
likely?
A. Torus palatinus
B. Geographic tongue
C. Acute glossitis
D. Leukoplakia
Correct A. Torus palatinus
Source Explanation: Best Clues The description of a chronic bony growth located midline in
the hard palate indicates torus palatinus. Rule out glossitis, geographic tongue, and hairy
leukoplakia because they are all located on the tongue and not on the hard palate (roof of the
mouth).
13. A torus palatinus is a
benign growth of bone (an exostosis) located midline on the hard palate and covered
with normal oral skin. It is painless and does not interfere with function.
14. A "geographic tongue" has
multiple fissures and irregular smoother areas on its surface that make it look like a
topographic map. The patient may complain of soreness on the tongue after eating or
drinking acidic or hot foods.
15. Leukoplakia is not
a benign variant. It appears as a slow-growing white plaque that has a firm to hard
surface that is slightly raised on the tongue or inside the mouth. It is considered a
precancerous lesion. It is due to chronic irritation of the skin or precancerous changes
on the tongue and inside the cheeks. Its causes include poorly fitting dentures,
chewing tobacco (snuff), and using other types of tobacco. Refer the patient for a
biopsy because it can sometimes become malignant.
16. Oral hairy leukoplakia (OHL) of the tongue is a
painless white patch (or patches) that appears corrugated. It is usually located on the
lateral aspects of the tongue (or other areas inside the mouth) and is associated with
HIV and AIDS infection. It is caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection of the
tongue. It is not considered a premalignant lesion.
,17. USPSTF (2018) currently recommends that a screening baseline mammogram (with or
without clinical breast exam) start at age ____ years and then every __ years until the age
of ___ years.
50; 2; 74
18. What is the USPSTF screening recommendation for ovarian cancer?
A. Annual bimanual pelvic exam with pelvic ultrasound
B. Pelvic and intravaginal ultrasound
C. Intravaginal ultrasound with CA-125 tumor marker
D. The USPSTF does not recommend routine screening of women for ovarian cancer (Grade
D)
Correct D. The USPSTF does not recommend routine screening of
Source Explanation: women for ovarian cancer (Grade D)
19. If there is a case scenario of an older woman who complains of vague
abdominal/pelvic symptoms (stomach bloating, low-back ache, constipation) and is
found to have a palpable ovary during the bimanual exam, rule out ______.
ovarian cancer
20. Always rule out ovarian cancer in a postmenopausal woman who has a ___.
palpable ovary
21. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Breast cancer (2018)
Baseline mammogram at age 50 years Screen every 2 years until age 74 years
(biennial) After age 75 years (insufficient evidence)
22. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Cervical cancer (2018)
Baseline Pap smear/cytology at age 21 years (do not screen younger) Screen every 3
years until age 65 years; at age 30-65 years, another option is to screen every 5 years
using hrHPV testing alone or in combination with cytology (cotesting).
23. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Lung cancer (2013)
Aged 55-80 years with 30 pack-year history of smoking or quit smoking up to 15 years
previously Annual screening with LDCT
24. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Hysterectomy (no cervix)
Do not screen (if no history of precancer or cervical cancer).
,25. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Prostate cancer (2018)
Aged 55-69 years, PSA-based screening should be individualized; ≥70 years, against
prostate cancer screening.
26. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Colorectal cancer (2016)
Baseline screening at age 50 years Use high-sensitivity fecal occult blood test (yearly)
or sigmoidoscopy (every 5 years) or colonoscopy (every 10 years) from age 50 to 75
years; aged 76–85 years, individualize.
27. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Skin cancer (2016)
Current evidence insufficient to assess benefits/harms of visual skin exam. Educate
fair-skinned persons to avoid sunlight (10 a.m.-3 p.m.) and use sunblock ≥SPF 15.
28. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Tobacco smoking (2020)
Ask all adults about tobacco use, advise them to stop smoking, and provide behavioral
interventions/pharmacotherapy (if not pregnant) for smoking cessation.
29. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Fall prevention in community-dwelling older adults
(2018)
Adults aged ≥65 years, exercise interventions to prevent falls in adults at increased
risk; against vitamin D supplementation.
30. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Ovarian cancer (2018)
Routine screening is not recommended. High-risk (BRCA mutation, family history of
breast/ovarian cancer) are screened by specialist; refer for genetic counseling.
31. USPSTF Screening Guidelines Abdominal aortic aneurysm (2019)
One-time screening (men aged 65-75 years) for cigarette smokers or those who have
quit. Screening test is ultrasound of abdomen.
,32. A 65 yo F smoker presents w/PMH of Barrett's esophagus GERD. The patient reports
prescription for esomeprazole (Nexium) 40 mg daily ran out a few days ago. She is
complaining of severe heartburn & sore throat. During the PE, the NP notes an
erythematous posterior pharynx w/o tonsillar d/c & mild dental enamel loss. What is the
best initial action?
A. Refer the patient to an oncologist for a biopsy to rule out esophageal cancer.
B. Give the patient a refill of her proton-pump inhibitor (PPI) pr
Correct B. Give the patient a refill of her proton-pump inhibitor (PPI)
Source Explanation: prescription and advise her to schedule an appointment with her
gastroenterologist. Best Clues Rule out option A because the patient is already under the
care of a gastroenterologist. OTC ranitidine (Zantac) is not potent enough to control the
symptoms of erosive esophagitis. A PPI is the preferred treatment for erosive esophagitis. Do
not switch the patient to another brand of PPI. Her worsening symptoms are due to rebound
caused by abrupt cessation of PPI. The best initial action in this case is to refill the PPI
prescription because the patient is fully symptomatic (erosive esophagitis) until she can see
her gastroenterologist.
33. Barrett's esophagus is the "precancerous" lesion of esophageal cancer. It is best
managed by a
gastroenterologist (not an oncologist).
34. Patients with Barrett's esophagus are treated with high-dose ____ for a "lifetime."
PPIs
35. Tanner Stages Girls Stage I: Stage II: Stage III: Stage IV: Stage V:
Prepubertal pattern Breast bud and areola start to develop. Breast continues to grow
with nipples/areola (one mound/no separation). Nipples and areola become elevated
from the breast (a secondary mound). Adult pattern
,36. Tanner Stages Boys Stage I: Prepubertal pattern Stage II: Testes and scrotum start to
enlarge (scrotal skin starts to get darker/more rugae). Stage III: Penis grows longer
(length) and testes/scrotum continues to become larger. Stage IV: Penis become wider
and continues growing in length (testes are larger with darker scrotal skin and more
rugae). Stage V: Adult pattern
• Stage I: Prepubertal pattern
• Stage II: Testes and scrotum start to enlarge (scrotal skin starts to get darker/more rugae).
• Stage III: Penis grows longer (length) and testes/scrotum continues to become larger.
• Stage IV: Penis become wider and continues growing in length (testes are larger with
darker scrotal skin and more rugae).
• Stage V: Adult pattern
37. A 14-year-old boy is brought in by his mother for a physical exam. Both are
concerned about his breast enlargement. The teen denies breast tenderness. On physical
exam, the NP palpates soft breast tissue that is not tender. No dominant mass is noted.
The skin is smooth, and there is no nipple discharge with massage. The teen has a body
mass index (BMI) of 29. Which of the following statements is correct? A. Advise the
mother that the patient has physiologic gynecomastia and should return for a f
• D. Educate the mother that her son has pseudogynecomastia.
Best Clues The boy is very overweight (BMI 29) and is almost obese. The clinical
breast exam does not show palpable breast tissue. Instead, the breast palpation
reveals soft fatty tissue. It is wrong to “reassure” a patient or family member in the
exam (poor therapeutic communication technique).
38. Physiologic gynecomastia physical exam findings will show disklike breast tissue
that is _____ under each nipple/areola; the breast may be tender, and the breast can be
asymmetrical (one breast larger than the other).
mobile
39. A BMI of 25 to 29.9 is considered . Obesity is a BMI of .
overweight 30 or higher
,40. Which of the following foods are known to have high potassium content? Low-fat
yogurt, soft cheeses, and collard greens Aged cheese, red wine, and chocolate Potatoes,
apricots, and Brussels sprouts Black beans, red meat, and citrus juice
• C. Potatoes, apricots, and Brussels sprouts
Best Clues First, look at the answer options for inconsistencies in the list of foods.
Rule out option A because it is inconsistent and these foods do not contain high levels
of potassium: low-fat yogurt and soft cheeses (calcium) with collard greens (vitamin
K). Rule out option B because these foods have a high tyramine, not potassium,
content. Rule out option D because it is inconsistent. Although citrus juices are high in
potassium, both black beans and red meat are not (iron). If options A, B, and D are
incorrect, then the only one left is option C (potatoes, apricots, and Brussels sprouts).
A large number of fruits and vegetables are rich in potassium and vitamins.
41. Diseases that are selected for case management are usually ____ conditions, such as
asthma, congestive heart failure (CHF), HIV infection, and chronic psychiatric conditions.
A good outcome will show ____ and ___ or ____.
chronic good symptom control no exacerbations hospitalizations
42. Danger Signals Cardiovascular System
Acute MI, unstable angina Heart failure Bacterial endocarditis Abdominal aortic
aneurysm (AAA)
43. Danger Signals Skin and Integumentary System
Angioedema/anaphylaxis Stevens-Johnson syndrome Meningococcemia Rocky
Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) Lyme disease Herpes zoster ophthalmicus Melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma
44. Danger Signals Gastrointestinal System
Acute abdomen (surgical abdomen) Acute appendicitis Acute pancreatitis Acute
diverticulitis Acute cholecystitis Clostridium difficile infection Colon cancer
45. Danger Signals Men’s Health
Testicular torsion Priapism Prostate cancer
46. Danger Signals Psychosocial Mental Health
Depression with suicidal plan Acute serotonin syndrome Malignant neuroleptic
syndrome
47. Danger Signals Nervous System
Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) Temporal arteritis headache Subarachnoid bleeding
Acute bacterial meningitis Subdural hematoma
,48. Danger Signals Head, Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat
Retinal detachment Orbital cellulitis Optic neuritis Peritonsillar abscess Battle sign
Herpes keratitis Temporal arteritis Acute angle-closure glaucoma
49. Danger Signals Pulmonary System
Anaphylaxis Severe asthmatic exacerbation (impending respiratory failure) Pulmonary
emboli CAP Lung cancer
50. Danger Signals Renal System
Acute pyelonephritis Acute renal failure Bladder cancer
51. Danger Signals Women’s Health
Dominant breast mass attached to surrounding tissue Ruptured tubal ectopic
pregnancy Paget's disease of the breast Ovarian cancer
52. An asthmatic male patient complains of a sudden onset of itching and coughing after
taking two aspirin tablets for a headache in the waiting room. The patient's lips and
eyelids are becoming swollen. The patient complains of feeling hot. Bright-red wheals are
noted on his chest and arms and legs. Which of the following is the best initial
intervention to follow? Call 911. Check the patient's BP, pulse, and temperature. Give an
injection of aqueous epinephrine 1:1,000 (1 mg/mL) 0.5 mg IM into
• C. Give an injection of aqueous epinephrine 1:1,000 dilution (1 mg/mL) 0.5 mg IM into the
vastus lateralis muscle immediately. Best Clues The quick onset of symptoms, such as
angioedema, after taking aspirin is a clue. The classic signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis
described in this case should be noted. Severe anaphylactic episodes occur almost
immediately or within 1 hour after exposure.
53. Patients with an atopic history (asthma, eczema, allergic rhinitis) with nasal polyps
are at higher risk for ____ and ___ allergies.
aspirin nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)
54. Anaphylaxis is classified as a _____ reaction.
type I IgE-dependent
55. Biphasic anaphylaxis occurs in up to __% of cases (symptoms recur within ___ hours
after initial episode). This is the reason why these patients are prescribed a ____ and a
____ after being discharged from the ED.
23 8-10 Medrol Dose Pack long-acting antihistamine
56. The most common triggers for anaphylaxis in children are ___.
foods
, 57. The most common triggers for anaphylaxis are ___ and ____ are the most common
triggers in adults.
medications insect stings
58. A 16-year-old boy presents to a community clinic accompanied by his grandmother,
who reports that he fell off his bike this morning. The patient now complains of a
headache with mild nausea. The patient's grandmother reports that he was not wearing a
helmet. The health history is uneventful. Which of the following statements is indicative
of an emergent condition? The patient complains of multiple painful abrasions that are
bleeding on his arms and legs. The patient complains of a headache tha
• D. The patient is having difficulty with following normal conversation and answering
questions.
Best Clues History of recent trauma that is followed by a headache with nausea. The
patient did not wear a bicycle helmet.
59. Which of the following drug classes is considered as first-line treatment for unipolar
depression in the elderly? SSRIs SNRIs Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) MAOIs
• A. SSRIs
Best Clues There are no obvious clues in this question. Answering it correctly is based
on your recognizing that unipolar depression is the same disease entity as
major/minor depression. Depression in bipolar patients is called bipolar depression.
SSRIs are the first-line treatment for unipolar/major depression. They carry an FDA
warning that they increase suicidality in children and young adults up to age 23 years.
TCAs have many anticholinergic effects (dry mouth, sedation, arrhythmias, confusion,
urinary retention, etc.). MAOIs have major food and drug interactions and are not
firstline drugs.
