ANCC FNP
Board-Prep Qs & Review Terms
400+ Prep Qs & Review Terms
Board-Exam Preparation
Main Features:
• Focused ANCC FNP board-exam review
• Board-Prep Questions and Review Terms
• Extensive collection of practice questions
• Helpful for identifying knowledge gaps
• Covers high-yield concepts
• Supports structured study and final revision
1
,1. The obligation to help the patient—to remove harm, prevent harm, and promote
good ("do no harm"). Acting in the patient's best interest. Compassionate patient care.
The core principle in patient advocacy.
Beneficence
2. The obligation to avoid harm. Protecting a patient from harm.
Nonmaleficence
3. The obligation to act in a way that is useful to or benefits the majority. The outcome
of the action is what matters with utilitarianism. It also means to use a resource (e.g.,
tax money) for the benefit of most. It may resemble justice (see next definition), but it
is not the same concept.
Utilitarianism
4. The quality of being fair and acting with a lack of bias. The fair and equitable
distribution of societal resources.
Justice
5. The quality or state of being worthy of ethical and respectful treatment. Respect for
human dignity is an important aspect of medical ethics. A person's religious, personal,
and cultural beliefs can influence greatly what a person considers "dignified"
treatment.
Dignity
6. The obligation to maintain trust in relationships. Dedication and loyalty to one's
patients. Keeping one's promise.
Fidelity
7. The obligation to ensure that mentally competent adult patients have the right to
make their own health decisions and express treatment preferences. If the patient is
mentally incapacitated (dementia, coma), the designated surrogate's choices are
respected. See later discussion on advance healthcare directives. A mentally
competent patient can decline or refuse treatment even if their adult children disagree.
Autonomy
2
,8. The obligation to present information honestly and truthfully. In order for patients to
make an informed and rational decision about their healthcare, pertinent information
(including "bad" news) should not be withheld or omitted.
Veracity
9. Medicare Part A (___)
Inpatient Hospitalization
10. Medicare Part B (___)
Outpatient Insurance
11. a healthcare delivery model that is also known as the primary care medical home. It
is another way to deliver patient-centered primary care. In PCMH, the patient and
family are considered important members of the healthcare team. Most of the patient's
healthcare needs are taken care of in the home setting. Other team members may
include physicians, advanced practice nurses, physician assistants (PAs), nurses,
pharmacists, nutritionists, social workers, educators, and care coordinators.
Patient-Centered Medical Home
12. involves monitoring, identifying problems, measuring outcomes, and establishing
new parameters for improved performance. The goal of these programs is to improve
the quality of care, decrease complications, decrease hospitalizations, lower patient
mortality, decrease system errors, and increase patient satisfaction. Patient outcomes
are important indicators of a health system's quality.
Quality-Improvement Programs
13. A patient may meet the criteria for hospice admission, but if the patient refuses
hospice care, then the patient is ___.
not eligible
14. If the patient meets the criteria for hospice care, ____ will reimburse hospice.
Medicare Part A
15. ___ will pay for an ambulance for emergency care. If transport in any other vehicle
will endanger the patient's health, transport by ambulance is allowed.
Medicare Part B
16. ___ does not reimburse for dentures, eyeglasses, or hearing aids
Medicare Part B
3
,17. The "____" is a method of primary healthcare delivery. Healthcare providers and
therapists (physical, occupational, speech) deliver care in the patient's home, with the
family. These patients have chronic long-term illness. To communicate, technology is
used, such as phone, video chat, or email.
medical home
18. The NP's legal right to practice is derived from the ___.
state legislature
19. The ____ is responsible for enforcing the state's nurse practice act.
state board of nursing (SBON)
20. Leader has the ability to communicate vision to staff members. May have
charismatic personality. Good communication skills. Staff members usually have
higher job satisfaction with this type of leader.
Transformational Leadership
21. Leader engages in minimal supervision and direction of staff members. Prefers
"hands-off" approach. May not like to make decisions. This style of leadership works
well if workers are experienced, like autonomy, and are self-directed. New or
unexperienced staff may feel anxious with this type of authority because of minimal
supervision and feedback.
Laissez-Faire Leadership
22. Leader likes control and structure and prefers to give directions. May have many
rules. Makes decisions without (or minimal) staff input. Motivated, independent, and
self-directed staff may be unhappy in this type of environment.
Authoritarian Leadership (Autocratic)
23. Leader likes to work along with staff on the unit. May assume many roles. Develops
relationships with staff members and treats staff as individuals, which results in high
job satisfaction for staff. But this type of leader may not like to make decisions that
can "anger" staff members.
Servant Leadership
24. Leader may like to have more frequent staff meetings because they value staff
members' input and feedback. Team shares in decision-making process, which may be
slow due to desire to include all of staff in process. Leader values relationships and
staff opinions.
Democratic Leadership
4
,25. Elements of a Case The plaintiff must prove that all of the following occurred
A duty is owed (a legal duty exists) .The duty was breached (e.g., not following
standard of care). The breach caused an injury (proximate cause). Damage occurred.
26. The first law allowing NPs to be reimbursed directly by Medicare. Prior to this act,
only certified pediatric and family NPs were allowed to be primary providers as long as
they practiced in designated "rural" areas.
Budget Reconciliation Act of 1989 (HR 3299)
27. Together with the Primary Care Health Practitioner Incentive Act, this law
broadened Medicare coverage of NP and clinical nurse specialist services. The Health
Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 required health providers
to have a National Provider Identifier (NPI) number to bill Medicare and Medicaid. NPs
can be reimbursed directly by Medicare Part B, Medicaid, Tricare, and some health
insurance plans. Medicare will reimburse NPs at 85% of the Medicare Physician Fee
Schedule.
Balance Budget Act of 1997
28. NPs receive their "right to practice" from the ___.
state legislature
29. The NPI contains __ numbers/digits.
10
30. The ICD-10 is used for ___ codes. The CPT code is used to ___ for outpatient office
procedures and services. Both the ICD-10 and CPT codes are required for each bill.
diagnosis bill
31. "___" billing is used for Medicare patients and refers to billing of a follow-up visit
performed by a nonphysician provider billed under the physician's NPI number (the
nonphysician provider is paid 100% vs. the rate of an NP or PA, who receives only
85%).
Incident-to
32. A report that outlines the important ethical principles that should be followed when
performing research that involves human subjects. The Belmont Report was issued by
the National Commission for the Protection of Human Subjects of Biomedical and
Behavioral Research (1979).
Belmont Report
5
,33. A ___ study compares differences and similarities between two or more groups of
people or phenomena and collects data at one point in time.
cross-sectional
34. An in-depth investigation of a single person, group, or phenomenon.
Case Study
35. A type of observational study in which the relationship (interrelationships) between
at least two variables is evaluated. There are three types of correlations: Positive
correlation: Two variables change together in the same direction. For example, when
variable A increases, then variable B also increases. Negative correlation: An increase
in one variable results in a decrease in the other. For example, when variable A
increases, this causes variable B to decrease. No correlation: The variables are not
related. For example, a change in variable A does not affect variable B.
Correlational
36. The design is similar to an experimental study, except there is no randomization of
the research subjects. Instead, recruitment of subjects is by convenience sample.
Quasi-Experimental
37. The phases of the research process generally can be summarized as follows:
Phase I—Conception: Phase II—Design and Planning: Phase III—Implementation:
Phase IV—Analysis: Phase V—Dissemination: Prepare final report; publish and
disseminate findings (e.g., journal articles, poster presentations, lectures)
Formulate research problem or question; review literature; develop hypothesis(es)
Select research design; identify population/sample; determine protocols, methods,
resources required, and ethical considerations; prepare proposal; submit to IRB for
approval Recruit participants (obtain consent); implement research design; collect
data Organize, analyze, and interpret data
38. ___ studies search for relationships between a minimum of two variables.-
Correlational
39. __ logic is used with quantitative studies, and inductive logic is used in qualitative
studies.
Deductive
40. This is a statistical method that combines data from multiple studies (systematic
review), resulting in higher statistical power and a single conclusion. This method is
considered the gold standard for evaluating research evidence for EBM.
Meta-Analysis
6
,41. A type of literature review that identifies, selects, and analyzes multiple research
articles concerning a health condition, disease, or other health-related practice.
Follows specific methodology to identify all the relevant studies on a specific topic.
Studies to be included must meet explicit criteria. Studies are ranked from grade A
(best evidence) to grade D (poor evidence). After a systematic review is done, the
acceptable studies are pooled together, and statistical testing of the data (meta-
analysis) is performed.
Systematic Review
42. Subjects are randomly assigned to either the control group or the treatment
group(s). The intervention may be a drug, procedure, or device. Some randomized
controlled trials (RCTs) use a double-blind design (the intervention is hidden from the
patient, clinician, and/or researchers). RCTs are experimental studies.
Randomized Controlled Trial
43. ____ is a measure of the degree of certainty in a sampling method. For example, a
95% CI is a range of values that you can be 95% certain contains the true mean of the
population.
Confidence interval (CI)
44. ___ is a measure of the difference between two different treatments in terms of
their ability to reduce a particular outcome (e.g., myocardial infarction [MI], stroke).
Absolute risk reduction (ARR)
45. ___ is a measure of how much risk is reduced in the experimental group compared
with the control group.
Relative risk reduction (RRR)
46. ___ is the number of patients you have to treat to avoid one bad outcome (e.g., MI,
stroke). For example, an NNT of seven means that it is necessary to treat seven
patients to avoid one bad outcome.
Number needed to treat (NNT)
47. ___ is the probability that a person with a positive screening test result has the
disease.
Positive predictive value (PPV)
48. ___ is the probability that a person with a negative test result does not have the
disease.
Negative predictive value (NPV)
7
,49. Refers to the ability of a screening test to correctly identify a person with the
disease.
Sensitivity
50. Refers to the ability of a screening test to correctly identify a person without the
disease.
Specificity
51. Nurse practitioners and clinical nurse specialists derive their legal right to practice
from
A. The nurse practice act in the state where they practice
B. The laws of the state where they practice
C. The Medicare statute
D. The board of nursing in the state where they practice
Solution: A
The nurse practice act in the state where they practice
The nurse practice act is a statute enacted by the legislature of each state. The act
delineates the legal scope of the practice of nursing within the geographic
boundaries of the jurisdiction. The purpose of the act is to protect the public. The
SBON is the agency that enforces the nurse practice act. The Medicare statute
provides the funds for paying for health services at the age of 65 years and older.
52. All of the following services are covered under Medicare Part A, except
A. Inpatient hospital care
B. Inpatient psychiatric hospital care
C. Custodial care
D. SNF care
Solution: C
Custodial care
Medicare Parts A and B do not cover custodial care or nursing home care (help with
bathing, dressing, using bathroom, and eating). Medicare Part A coverage includes
inpatient hospitalization, inpatient psychiatric hospitalization, and skilled care given
in a certified SNF.
8
,53. What is the best description of a variable?
A. It is an important part of every research study
B. It is the probability that a factor is important for the research data
C. It is the value or number that occurs the most frequently
D. It is a condition, characteristic, or factor that is being measured
Solution: D
It is a condition, characteristic, or factor that is being measured
A variable is a condition, characteristic, or factor that is being measured. An
independent variable is the one being manipulated that is not affected by the others.
A dependent variable changes depending on the manipulation of the independent
variable.
54. According to EBM experts, which of the following types of research has the lowest
ranking?
A. RCT
B. Experimental study
C. Cohort study
D. Editorial
Solution: D
Editorial
Editorials and professional society opinions are considered the lowest level of
evidence because they are subjective and not based on research. The ranking of
options for this question is as follows: (1) randomized controlled trial (RCT), (2)
experimental study, (3) cohort study, and (4) editorial. The best method of correctly
answering this type of question is to memorize the categories for the best level of
evidence (meta-analysis and/or systematic review and/or RCTs) and the lowest form
of evidence (opinions, editorials).
55. Some American Indians may view illness or disease as being caused by which of
the following?
A. Poor blood circulation in the body
B. Spiritual problems manifesting as physical disease of the body
C. An imbalance of the flow of energy in the body
D. An imbalance of the hot and cold energy forces in the body
Solution: B
Spiritual problems manifesting as physical disease of the body
American Indians traditionally believe that spiritual problems can manifest as
physical disease of the body. Some illnesses are believed to come from angry
spirits, and special rituals are used by healers to appease the angered spirits. The
use of herbs and botanicals are used by traditional healers (i.e., shamans) in the
form of salves, tinctures, or teas. A sweat lodge (heated by fire on hot stones) may
be used for cleansing and purification of a person or place. This practice is called
"smudging."
9
, 56. Which of the following is considered by Latinos/Hispanics to be a spiritual illness
that can cause symptoms such as loss of appetite, crying, diarrhea, and weakness or
death among infants and small children?
A. Mal ojo (or mal de ojo)
B. Chronic nightmares
C. Trabajo
D. Malo
Solution: A
Mal ojo (or mal de ojo)
Mal ojo (or mal de ojo) is a spiritual illness that can cause symptoms such as loss of
appetite, crying, diarrhea, colic, fear, weakness, or death. A curandero or curandera
is usually consulted and does spiritual cleansing of the patient. It may take several
cleansings (limpia) to cure the patient. Trabajo means "work," and malo means
"bad" in Spanish; these are included as distractors.
57. Which of the following definitions describes the term specificity?
A. Ability of a screening test to correctly identify a person with a disease
B. Probability that a person with a negative test result does not have the disease
C. Degree of certainty in a sampling method
D. Ability of a screening test to correctly identify a person without a disease
Solution: D
Ability of a screening test to correctly identify a person without a disease
Specificity measures the ability of a screening test to correctly identify a person
without a disease. It is often confused with sensitivity, which measures the ability of
a screening test to correctly identify a person with a disease. Negative predictive
value is the probability that a person with a negative test result does not have the
disease, and confidence interval measures the degree of certainty in a sampling
method.
58. Which of the following statements is false regarding the HITECH Act of 2009?
A. It encouraged healthcare providers to adopt electronic health records (EHR)
B. It improved the security protections for healthcare data
C. It provided financial incentives for adoption of EHRs
D. Healthcare providers are not required to use EHRs if a hard copy of the chart is
available
Solution: D
Healthcare providers are not required to use EHRs if a hard copy of the chart is
available
Option D is a false statement. After 2015, HITECH began to issue financial penalties
(e.g., reductions of Medicare and Medicaid reimbursement) for providers and entities
who had not adopted EHR technologies.
59. HIPAA was passed by Congress in 2003. All of the following statements about
HIPAA are correct, except
A. It provides federal protections for personal health information
10
Board-Prep Qs & Review Terms
400+ Prep Qs & Review Terms
Board-Exam Preparation
Main Features:
• Focused ANCC FNP board-exam review
• Board-Prep Questions and Review Terms
• Extensive collection of practice questions
• Helpful for identifying knowledge gaps
• Covers high-yield concepts
• Supports structured study and final revision
1
,1. The obligation to help the patient—to remove harm, prevent harm, and promote
good ("do no harm"). Acting in the patient's best interest. Compassionate patient care.
The core principle in patient advocacy.
Beneficence
2. The obligation to avoid harm. Protecting a patient from harm.
Nonmaleficence
3. The obligation to act in a way that is useful to or benefits the majority. The outcome
of the action is what matters with utilitarianism. It also means to use a resource (e.g.,
tax money) for the benefit of most. It may resemble justice (see next definition), but it
is not the same concept.
Utilitarianism
4. The quality of being fair and acting with a lack of bias. The fair and equitable
distribution of societal resources.
Justice
5. The quality or state of being worthy of ethical and respectful treatment. Respect for
human dignity is an important aspect of medical ethics. A person's religious, personal,
and cultural beliefs can influence greatly what a person considers "dignified"
treatment.
Dignity
6. The obligation to maintain trust in relationships. Dedication and loyalty to one's
patients. Keeping one's promise.
Fidelity
7. The obligation to ensure that mentally competent adult patients have the right to
make their own health decisions and express treatment preferences. If the patient is
mentally incapacitated (dementia, coma), the designated surrogate's choices are
respected. See later discussion on advance healthcare directives. A mentally
competent patient can decline or refuse treatment even if their adult children disagree.
Autonomy
2
,8. The obligation to present information honestly and truthfully. In order for patients to
make an informed and rational decision about their healthcare, pertinent information
(including "bad" news) should not be withheld or omitted.
Veracity
9. Medicare Part A (___)
Inpatient Hospitalization
10. Medicare Part B (___)
Outpatient Insurance
11. a healthcare delivery model that is also known as the primary care medical home. It
is another way to deliver patient-centered primary care. In PCMH, the patient and
family are considered important members of the healthcare team. Most of the patient's
healthcare needs are taken care of in the home setting. Other team members may
include physicians, advanced practice nurses, physician assistants (PAs), nurses,
pharmacists, nutritionists, social workers, educators, and care coordinators.
Patient-Centered Medical Home
12. involves monitoring, identifying problems, measuring outcomes, and establishing
new parameters for improved performance. The goal of these programs is to improve
the quality of care, decrease complications, decrease hospitalizations, lower patient
mortality, decrease system errors, and increase patient satisfaction. Patient outcomes
are important indicators of a health system's quality.
Quality-Improvement Programs
13. A patient may meet the criteria for hospice admission, but if the patient refuses
hospice care, then the patient is ___.
not eligible
14. If the patient meets the criteria for hospice care, ____ will reimburse hospice.
Medicare Part A
15. ___ will pay for an ambulance for emergency care. If transport in any other vehicle
will endanger the patient's health, transport by ambulance is allowed.
Medicare Part B
16. ___ does not reimburse for dentures, eyeglasses, or hearing aids
Medicare Part B
3
,17. The "____" is a method of primary healthcare delivery. Healthcare providers and
therapists (physical, occupational, speech) deliver care in the patient's home, with the
family. These patients have chronic long-term illness. To communicate, technology is
used, such as phone, video chat, or email.
medical home
18. The NP's legal right to practice is derived from the ___.
state legislature
19. The ____ is responsible for enforcing the state's nurse practice act.
state board of nursing (SBON)
20. Leader has the ability to communicate vision to staff members. May have
charismatic personality. Good communication skills. Staff members usually have
higher job satisfaction with this type of leader.
Transformational Leadership
21. Leader engages in minimal supervision and direction of staff members. Prefers
"hands-off" approach. May not like to make decisions. This style of leadership works
well if workers are experienced, like autonomy, and are self-directed. New or
unexperienced staff may feel anxious with this type of authority because of minimal
supervision and feedback.
Laissez-Faire Leadership
22. Leader likes control and structure and prefers to give directions. May have many
rules. Makes decisions without (or minimal) staff input. Motivated, independent, and
self-directed staff may be unhappy in this type of environment.
Authoritarian Leadership (Autocratic)
23. Leader likes to work along with staff on the unit. May assume many roles. Develops
relationships with staff members and treats staff as individuals, which results in high
job satisfaction for staff. But this type of leader may not like to make decisions that
can "anger" staff members.
Servant Leadership
24. Leader may like to have more frequent staff meetings because they value staff
members' input and feedback. Team shares in decision-making process, which may be
slow due to desire to include all of staff in process. Leader values relationships and
staff opinions.
Democratic Leadership
4
,25. Elements of a Case The plaintiff must prove that all of the following occurred
A duty is owed (a legal duty exists) .The duty was breached (e.g., not following
standard of care). The breach caused an injury (proximate cause). Damage occurred.
26. The first law allowing NPs to be reimbursed directly by Medicare. Prior to this act,
only certified pediatric and family NPs were allowed to be primary providers as long as
they practiced in designated "rural" areas.
Budget Reconciliation Act of 1989 (HR 3299)
27. Together with the Primary Care Health Practitioner Incentive Act, this law
broadened Medicare coverage of NP and clinical nurse specialist services. The Health
Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 required health providers
to have a National Provider Identifier (NPI) number to bill Medicare and Medicaid. NPs
can be reimbursed directly by Medicare Part B, Medicaid, Tricare, and some health
insurance plans. Medicare will reimburse NPs at 85% of the Medicare Physician Fee
Schedule.
Balance Budget Act of 1997
28. NPs receive their "right to practice" from the ___.
state legislature
29. The NPI contains __ numbers/digits.
10
30. The ICD-10 is used for ___ codes. The CPT code is used to ___ for outpatient office
procedures and services. Both the ICD-10 and CPT codes are required for each bill.
diagnosis bill
31. "___" billing is used for Medicare patients and refers to billing of a follow-up visit
performed by a nonphysician provider billed under the physician's NPI number (the
nonphysician provider is paid 100% vs. the rate of an NP or PA, who receives only
85%).
Incident-to
32. A report that outlines the important ethical principles that should be followed when
performing research that involves human subjects. The Belmont Report was issued by
the National Commission for the Protection of Human Subjects of Biomedical and
Behavioral Research (1979).
Belmont Report
5
,33. A ___ study compares differences and similarities between two or more groups of
people or phenomena and collects data at one point in time.
cross-sectional
34. An in-depth investigation of a single person, group, or phenomenon.
Case Study
35. A type of observational study in which the relationship (interrelationships) between
at least two variables is evaluated. There are three types of correlations: Positive
correlation: Two variables change together in the same direction. For example, when
variable A increases, then variable B also increases. Negative correlation: An increase
in one variable results in a decrease in the other. For example, when variable A
increases, this causes variable B to decrease. No correlation: The variables are not
related. For example, a change in variable A does not affect variable B.
Correlational
36. The design is similar to an experimental study, except there is no randomization of
the research subjects. Instead, recruitment of subjects is by convenience sample.
Quasi-Experimental
37. The phases of the research process generally can be summarized as follows:
Phase I—Conception: Phase II—Design and Planning: Phase III—Implementation:
Phase IV—Analysis: Phase V—Dissemination: Prepare final report; publish and
disseminate findings (e.g., journal articles, poster presentations, lectures)
Formulate research problem or question; review literature; develop hypothesis(es)
Select research design; identify population/sample; determine protocols, methods,
resources required, and ethical considerations; prepare proposal; submit to IRB for
approval Recruit participants (obtain consent); implement research design; collect
data Organize, analyze, and interpret data
38. ___ studies search for relationships between a minimum of two variables.-
Correlational
39. __ logic is used with quantitative studies, and inductive logic is used in qualitative
studies.
Deductive
40. This is a statistical method that combines data from multiple studies (systematic
review), resulting in higher statistical power and a single conclusion. This method is
considered the gold standard for evaluating research evidence for EBM.
Meta-Analysis
6
,41. A type of literature review that identifies, selects, and analyzes multiple research
articles concerning a health condition, disease, or other health-related practice.
Follows specific methodology to identify all the relevant studies on a specific topic.
Studies to be included must meet explicit criteria. Studies are ranked from grade A
(best evidence) to grade D (poor evidence). After a systematic review is done, the
acceptable studies are pooled together, and statistical testing of the data (meta-
analysis) is performed.
Systematic Review
42. Subjects are randomly assigned to either the control group or the treatment
group(s). The intervention may be a drug, procedure, or device. Some randomized
controlled trials (RCTs) use a double-blind design (the intervention is hidden from the
patient, clinician, and/or researchers). RCTs are experimental studies.
Randomized Controlled Trial
43. ____ is a measure of the degree of certainty in a sampling method. For example, a
95% CI is a range of values that you can be 95% certain contains the true mean of the
population.
Confidence interval (CI)
44. ___ is a measure of the difference between two different treatments in terms of
their ability to reduce a particular outcome (e.g., myocardial infarction [MI], stroke).
Absolute risk reduction (ARR)
45. ___ is a measure of how much risk is reduced in the experimental group compared
with the control group.
Relative risk reduction (RRR)
46. ___ is the number of patients you have to treat to avoid one bad outcome (e.g., MI,
stroke). For example, an NNT of seven means that it is necessary to treat seven
patients to avoid one bad outcome.
Number needed to treat (NNT)
47. ___ is the probability that a person with a positive screening test result has the
disease.
Positive predictive value (PPV)
48. ___ is the probability that a person with a negative test result does not have the
disease.
Negative predictive value (NPV)
7
,49. Refers to the ability of a screening test to correctly identify a person with the
disease.
Sensitivity
50. Refers to the ability of a screening test to correctly identify a person without the
disease.
Specificity
51. Nurse practitioners and clinical nurse specialists derive their legal right to practice
from
A. The nurse practice act in the state where they practice
B. The laws of the state where they practice
C. The Medicare statute
D. The board of nursing in the state where they practice
Solution: A
The nurse practice act in the state where they practice
The nurse practice act is a statute enacted by the legislature of each state. The act
delineates the legal scope of the practice of nursing within the geographic
boundaries of the jurisdiction. The purpose of the act is to protect the public. The
SBON is the agency that enforces the nurse practice act. The Medicare statute
provides the funds for paying for health services at the age of 65 years and older.
52. All of the following services are covered under Medicare Part A, except
A. Inpatient hospital care
B. Inpatient psychiatric hospital care
C. Custodial care
D. SNF care
Solution: C
Custodial care
Medicare Parts A and B do not cover custodial care or nursing home care (help with
bathing, dressing, using bathroom, and eating). Medicare Part A coverage includes
inpatient hospitalization, inpatient psychiatric hospitalization, and skilled care given
in a certified SNF.
8
,53. What is the best description of a variable?
A. It is an important part of every research study
B. It is the probability that a factor is important for the research data
C. It is the value or number that occurs the most frequently
D. It is a condition, characteristic, or factor that is being measured
Solution: D
It is a condition, characteristic, or factor that is being measured
A variable is a condition, characteristic, or factor that is being measured. An
independent variable is the one being manipulated that is not affected by the others.
A dependent variable changes depending on the manipulation of the independent
variable.
54. According to EBM experts, which of the following types of research has the lowest
ranking?
A. RCT
B. Experimental study
C. Cohort study
D. Editorial
Solution: D
Editorial
Editorials and professional society opinions are considered the lowest level of
evidence because they are subjective and not based on research. The ranking of
options for this question is as follows: (1) randomized controlled trial (RCT), (2)
experimental study, (3) cohort study, and (4) editorial. The best method of correctly
answering this type of question is to memorize the categories for the best level of
evidence (meta-analysis and/or systematic review and/or RCTs) and the lowest form
of evidence (opinions, editorials).
55. Some American Indians may view illness or disease as being caused by which of
the following?
A. Poor blood circulation in the body
B. Spiritual problems manifesting as physical disease of the body
C. An imbalance of the flow of energy in the body
D. An imbalance of the hot and cold energy forces in the body
Solution: B
Spiritual problems manifesting as physical disease of the body
American Indians traditionally believe that spiritual problems can manifest as
physical disease of the body. Some illnesses are believed to come from angry
spirits, and special rituals are used by healers to appease the angered spirits. The
use of herbs and botanicals are used by traditional healers (i.e., shamans) in the
form of salves, tinctures, or teas. A sweat lodge (heated by fire on hot stones) may
be used for cleansing and purification of a person or place. This practice is called
"smudging."
9
, 56. Which of the following is considered by Latinos/Hispanics to be a spiritual illness
that can cause symptoms such as loss of appetite, crying, diarrhea, and weakness or
death among infants and small children?
A. Mal ojo (or mal de ojo)
B. Chronic nightmares
C. Trabajo
D. Malo
Solution: A
Mal ojo (or mal de ojo)
Mal ojo (or mal de ojo) is a spiritual illness that can cause symptoms such as loss of
appetite, crying, diarrhea, colic, fear, weakness, or death. A curandero or curandera
is usually consulted and does spiritual cleansing of the patient. It may take several
cleansings (limpia) to cure the patient. Trabajo means "work," and malo means
"bad" in Spanish; these are included as distractors.
57. Which of the following definitions describes the term specificity?
A. Ability of a screening test to correctly identify a person with a disease
B. Probability that a person with a negative test result does not have the disease
C. Degree of certainty in a sampling method
D. Ability of a screening test to correctly identify a person without a disease
Solution: D
Ability of a screening test to correctly identify a person without a disease
Specificity measures the ability of a screening test to correctly identify a person
without a disease. It is often confused with sensitivity, which measures the ability of
a screening test to correctly identify a person with a disease. Negative predictive
value is the probability that a person with a negative test result does not have the
disease, and confidence interval measures the degree of certainty in a sampling
method.
58. Which of the following statements is false regarding the HITECH Act of 2009?
A. It encouraged healthcare providers to adopt electronic health records (EHR)
B. It improved the security protections for healthcare data
C. It provided financial incentives for adoption of EHRs
D. Healthcare providers are not required to use EHRs if a hard copy of the chart is
available
Solution: D
Healthcare providers are not required to use EHRs if a hard copy of the chart is
available
Option D is a false statement. After 2015, HITECH began to issue financial penalties
(e.g., reductions of Medicare and Medicaid reimbursement) for providers and entities
who had not adopted EHR technologies.
59. HIPAA was passed by Congress in 2003. All of the following statements about
HIPAA are correct, except
A. It provides federal protections for personal health information
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