NRNP 6566 MIDTERM Practice Exam
2026| 250 Most Tested Questions
Collection & Verified Detailed Answers
| Tutor Verified Success Exam) Graded
A+
Question 1
A 72-year-old patient presents with confusion, fever, and dysuria.
Which finding is most concerning for sepsis?
A. Temperature of 37.8°C
B. Heart rate of 88/min
C. Respiratory rate of 26/min
D. Blood pressure of 138/82 mmHg
Answer: C. Respiratory rate of 26/min
Rationale: Tachypnea can be an early sign of systemic infection and
physiologic deterioration. In a patient with suspected infection, an
elevated respiratory rate should prompt further assessment for sepsis
and organ dysfunction.
Question 2
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is
receiving supplemental oxygen. Which oxygen saturation target is
generally appropriate for a patient at risk for chronic CO₂ retention?
A. 70–75%
B. 80–85%
C. 88–92%
D. 98–100%
,Answer: C. 88–92%
Rationale: Patients with COPD who are at risk for hypercapnic
respiratory failure are commonly maintained at an oxygen saturation
of approximately 88–92% to provide adequate oxygenation while
reducing the risk of worsening hypercapnia.
Question 3
A patient with heart failure reports worsening dyspnea and
orthopnea. Which assessment finding requires the most immediate
attention?
A. Bilateral ankle edema
B. Weight gain of 2 lb in 1 week
C. Crackles with respiratory distress
D. Fatigue when climbing stairs
Answer: C. Crackles with respiratory distress
Rationale: Acute respiratory distress and pulmonary congestion may
indicate acute decompensated heart failure and require immediate
assessment and intervention.
Question 4
Which patient is at greatest risk for developing delirium?
A. A 25-year-old with an uncomplicated ankle fracture
B. A 40-year-old with controlled hypertension
C. An 82-year-old hospitalized with pneumonia
D. A 35-year-old with seasonal allergies
Answer: C. An 82-year-old hospitalized with pneumonia
Rationale: Advanced age, acute illness, infection, hospitalization, and
physiologic stress are important risk factors for delirium.
,Question 5
A patient suddenly develops facial drooping, unilateral arm
weakness, and difficulty speaking. What is the priority action?
A. Administer aspirin immediately
B. Obtain a detailed family history
C. Activate the acute stroke evaluation pathway
D. Schedule an outpatient MRI
Answer: C. Activate the acute stroke evaluation pathway
Rationale: Sudden focal neurologic deficits strongly suggest acute
stroke. Rapid evaluation is essential because eligibility for time-
sensitive reperfusion therapies depends on the time of symptom
onset and other clinical factors.
Question 6
Which finding is most characteristic of left-sided heart failure?
A. Ascites
B. Peripheral edema
C. Pulmonary crackles
D. Enlarged liver
Answer: C. Pulmonary crackles
Rationale: Left ventricular dysfunction causes pulmonary venous
congestion, which may produce crackles, dyspnea, orthopnea, and
pulmonary edema.
Question 7
, A patient taking warfarin presents with significant gastrointestinal
bleeding. Which laboratory test is most relevant?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Troponin
D. Serum sodium
Answer: B. INR
Rationale: Warfarin therapy is monitored primarily with the
prothrombin time expressed as the INR. A markedly elevated INR
increases bleeding risk.
Question 8
A patient taking an ACE inhibitor develops swelling of the lips and
tongue. What is the priority concern?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Angioedema with airway compromise
C. Bradycardia
D. Hyperglycemia
Answer: B. Angioedema with airway compromise
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can cause angioedema involving the
tongue, lips, and upper airway. Airway assessment and emergency
management take priority.
Question 9
Which electrolyte abnormality is particularly associated with cardiac
dysrhythmias?
A. Mild hypernatremia
B. Hypokalemia
2026| 250 Most Tested Questions
Collection & Verified Detailed Answers
| Tutor Verified Success Exam) Graded
A+
Question 1
A 72-year-old patient presents with confusion, fever, and dysuria.
Which finding is most concerning for sepsis?
A. Temperature of 37.8°C
B. Heart rate of 88/min
C. Respiratory rate of 26/min
D. Blood pressure of 138/82 mmHg
Answer: C. Respiratory rate of 26/min
Rationale: Tachypnea can be an early sign of systemic infection and
physiologic deterioration. In a patient with suspected infection, an
elevated respiratory rate should prompt further assessment for sepsis
and organ dysfunction.
Question 2
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is
receiving supplemental oxygen. Which oxygen saturation target is
generally appropriate for a patient at risk for chronic CO₂ retention?
A. 70–75%
B. 80–85%
C. 88–92%
D. 98–100%
,Answer: C. 88–92%
Rationale: Patients with COPD who are at risk for hypercapnic
respiratory failure are commonly maintained at an oxygen saturation
of approximately 88–92% to provide adequate oxygenation while
reducing the risk of worsening hypercapnia.
Question 3
A patient with heart failure reports worsening dyspnea and
orthopnea. Which assessment finding requires the most immediate
attention?
A. Bilateral ankle edema
B. Weight gain of 2 lb in 1 week
C. Crackles with respiratory distress
D. Fatigue when climbing stairs
Answer: C. Crackles with respiratory distress
Rationale: Acute respiratory distress and pulmonary congestion may
indicate acute decompensated heart failure and require immediate
assessment and intervention.
Question 4
Which patient is at greatest risk for developing delirium?
A. A 25-year-old with an uncomplicated ankle fracture
B. A 40-year-old with controlled hypertension
C. An 82-year-old hospitalized with pneumonia
D. A 35-year-old with seasonal allergies
Answer: C. An 82-year-old hospitalized with pneumonia
Rationale: Advanced age, acute illness, infection, hospitalization, and
physiologic stress are important risk factors for delirium.
,Question 5
A patient suddenly develops facial drooping, unilateral arm
weakness, and difficulty speaking. What is the priority action?
A. Administer aspirin immediately
B. Obtain a detailed family history
C. Activate the acute stroke evaluation pathway
D. Schedule an outpatient MRI
Answer: C. Activate the acute stroke evaluation pathway
Rationale: Sudden focal neurologic deficits strongly suggest acute
stroke. Rapid evaluation is essential because eligibility for time-
sensitive reperfusion therapies depends on the time of symptom
onset and other clinical factors.
Question 6
Which finding is most characteristic of left-sided heart failure?
A. Ascites
B. Peripheral edema
C. Pulmonary crackles
D. Enlarged liver
Answer: C. Pulmonary crackles
Rationale: Left ventricular dysfunction causes pulmonary venous
congestion, which may produce crackles, dyspnea, orthopnea, and
pulmonary edema.
Question 7
, A patient taking warfarin presents with significant gastrointestinal
bleeding. Which laboratory test is most relevant?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Troponin
D. Serum sodium
Answer: B. INR
Rationale: Warfarin therapy is monitored primarily with the
prothrombin time expressed as the INR. A markedly elevated INR
increases bleeding risk.
Question 8
A patient taking an ACE inhibitor develops swelling of the lips and
tongue. What is the priority concern?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Angioedema with airway compromise
C. Bradycardia
D. Hyperglycemia
Answer: B. Angioedema with airway compromise
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can cause angioedema involving the
tongue, lips, and upper airway. Airway assessment and emergency
management take priority.
Question 9
Which electrolyte abnormality is particularly associated with cardiac
dysrhythmias?
A. Mild hypernatremia
B. Hypokalemia
