ATI PN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM WITH NGN ALL 180
QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS TO PASS 2026 ACTUAL PN
ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM
Core Domains
• Management of Care
• Safety and Infection Control
• Health Promotion and Maintenance
• Psychosocial Integrity
• Basic Care and Comfort
• Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
• Reduction of Risk Potential
• Physiological Adaptation
Introduction
This comprehensive practical nursing exit examination is designed to
evaluate the candidate's readiness for entry-level nursing practice
across all content areas. The assessment covers foundational nursing
concepts, medical-surgical nursing, maternal-child health, mental
health, pharmacology, and professional standards. The exam
integrates multiple-choice, select-all-that-apply, and unfolding Next
Generation NCLEX (NGN) case scenarios to measure clinical
judgment, prioritization, delegation, and evidence-based decision-
making. Emphasis is placed on the practical application of nursing
knowledge in real-world clinical situations, ensuring the candidate is
prepared to deliver safe, high-quality, patient-centered care with
sound clinical reasoning across the continuum of care. Candidates
are expected to demonstrate competence in all core domains to
successfully pass the comprehensive predictor examination.
,1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving
furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values indicates the
medication is effective?
A. Decreased serum sodium
B. Decreased serum potassium
C. Decreased serum creatinine
D. Decreased serum BUN
A. Decreased serum sodium
RATIONALE: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes excretion
of sodium and water, leading to decreased serum sodium. While
potassium loss is an adverse effect, the therapeutic effect is diuresis,
which reduces sodium and fluid volume. Serum creatinine and BUN may
decrease with improved renal perfusion, but sodium is the direct
indicator of diuretic effectiveness.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of
diabetes mellitus type 2. Which of the following statements by the
client indicates an understanding of the dietary management of this
condition?
A. "I will include at least 30 grams of fiber daily in my diet."
B. "I will avoid all carbohydrates to control my blood sugar."
C. "I will eat large meals once a day to reduce sugar spikes."
D. "I will limit my protein intake to 10% of my total calories."
A. "I will include at least 30 grams of fiber daily in my diet."
, RATIONALE: Dietary fiber (25-30 g/day) helps slow glucose
absorption and improve glycemic control in type 2 diabetes. Avoiding all
carbohydrates is not recommended; carbohydrates should be
distributed throughout the day. Large meals can cause glucose spikes;
protein intake should be individualized.
3. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD) who is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing an
adverse effect of oxygen therapy?
A. Respiratory rate of 22/min
B. SpO2 of 92%
C. Client reports fatigue
D. Client reports confusion and headache
D. Client reports confusion and headache
RATIONALE: Confusion and headache in a client with COPD may
indicate carbon dioxide narcosis, a complication of oxygen therapy in
clients with chronic hypercapnia who rely on hypoxic drive. The
respiratory rate is normal; SpO2 92% is adequate for COPD; fatigue may
be related to the disease process.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which of the
following positions should the nurse encourage to reduce pain?
A. Prone position
B. Supine position
, C. Side-lying position with knees flexed
D. High Fowler's position
C. Side-lying position with knees flexed
RATIONALE: The fetal position (side-lying with knees flexed) reduces
tension on the abdominal muscles and decreases pain in acute
pancreatitis. The prone and supine positions increase pressure on the
pancreas; High Fowler's does not specifically reduce pancreatic pain.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client
with anemia. Which of the following actions is the priority before
initiating the transfusion?
A. Verify the blood product with another nurse
B. Assess the client's vital signs
C. Insert a 20-gauge IV catheter
D. Obtain a signed informed consent
A. Verify the blood product with another nurse
RATIONALE: Verification of the blood product with another nurse is
a critical safety step to ensure the correct blood product is administered
to the correct client. This includes checking the client's identification,
blood type, unit number, and expiration date. Vital signs are also
important but verification is the priority to prevent transfusion errors.
6. A nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury who has a
potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. Which of the following interventions
should the nurse anticipate?
QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS TO PASS 2026 ACTUAL PN
ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM
Core Domains
• Management of Care
• Safety and Infection Control
• Health Promotion and Maintenance
• Psychosocial Integrity
• Basic Care and Comfort
• Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
• Reduction of Risk Potential
• Physiological Adaptation
Introduction
This comprehensive practical nursing exit examination is designed to
evaluate the candidate's readiness for entry-level nursing practice
across all content areas. The assessment covers foundational nursing
concepts, medical-surgical nursing, maternal-child health, mental
health, pharmacology, and professional standards. The exam
integrates multiple-choice, select-all-that-apply, and unfolding Next
Generation NCLEX (NGN) case scenarios to measure clinical
judgment, prioritization, delegation, and evidence-based decision-
making. Emphasis is placed on the practical application of nursing
knowledge in real-world clinical situations, ensuring the candidate is
prepared to deliver safe, high-quality, patient-centered care with
sound clinical reasoning across the continuum of care. Candidates
are expected to demonstrate competence in all core domains to
successfully pass the comprehensive predictor examination.
,1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving
furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values indicates the
medication is effective?
A. Decreased serum sodium
B. Decreased serum potassium
C. Decreased serum creatinine
D. Decreased serum BUN
A. Decreased serum sodium
RATIONALE: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes excretion
of sodium and water, leading to decreased serum sodium. While
potassium loss is an adverse effect, the therapeutic effect is diuresis,
which reduces sodium and fluid volume. Serum creatinine and BUN may
decrease with improved renal perfusion, but sodium is the direct
indicator of diuretic effectiveness.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of
diabetes mellitus type 2. Which of the following statements by the
client indicates an understanding of the dietary management of this
condition?
A. "I will include at least 30 grams of fiber daily in my diet."
B. "I will avoid all carbohydrates to control my blood sugar."
C. "I will eat large meals once a day to reduce sugar spikes."
D. "I will limit my protein intake to 10% of my total calories."
A. "I will include at least 30 grams of fiber daily in my diet."
, RATIONALE: Dietary fiber (25-30 g/day) helps slow glucose
absorption and improve glycemic control in type 2 diabetes. Avoiding all
carbohydrates is not recommended; carbohydrates should be
distributed throughout the day. Large meals can cause glucose spikes;
protein intake should be individualized.
3. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD) who is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing an
adverse effect of oxygen therapy?
A. Respiratory rate of 22/min
B. SpO2 of 92%
C. Client reports fatigue
D. Client reports confusion and headache
D. Client reports confusion and headache
RATIONALE: Confusion and headache in a client with COPD may
indicate carbon dioxide narcosis, a complication of oxygen therapy in
clients with chronic hypercapnia who rely on hypoxic drive. The
respiratory rate is normal; SpO2 92% is adequate for COPD; fatigue may
be related to the disease process.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which of the
following positions should the nurse encourage to reduce pain?
A. Prone position
B. Supine position
, C. Side-lying position with knees flexed
D. High Fowler's position
C. Side-lying position with knees flexed
RATIONALE: The fetal position (side-lying with knees flexed) reduces
tension on the abdominal muscles and decreases pain in acute
pancreatitis. The prone and supine positions increase pressure on the
pancreas; High Fowler's does not specifically reduce pancreatic pain.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client
with anemia. Which of the following actions is the priority before
initiating the transfusion?
A. Verify the blood product with another nurse
B. Assess the client's vital signs
C. Insert a 20-gauge IV catheter
D. Obtain a signed informed consent
A. Verify the blood product with another nurse
RATIONALE: Verification of the blood product with another nurse is
a critical safety step to ensure the correct blood product is administered
to the correct client. This includes checking the client's identification,
blood type, unit number, and expiration date. Vital signs are also
important but verification is the priority to prevent transfusion errors.
6. A nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury who has a
potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. Which of the following interventions
should the nurse anticipate?
