WGU D440
HESI Nutrition
Objective Assessment
(3 Full Exams Set)
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢250 OA Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢ (Victoria + Kareem + Stephanie Study Guides)
➢ Expert Rationales included.
, WGU D440 HESI NUTRITION OA
Preview Pages Below
Get the Complete PDF
After Purchase
If you require further clarification or in need of any study resources, feel
free to Message me.
Preview the pages below before purchasing
,Table of Contents
D440 (OA) Set 1 ................................................................. 2
D440 (OA) Set 2 ............................................................... 34
D440 (OA) Set 3 ............................................................... 82
D440 (Victoria + Kareem + Stephanie Study Guides) ....... 121
D440 (OA) Set 1
Case Study: Postoperative Dietary Management
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who underwent a laparoscopic
cholecystectomy earlier in the week. The client asks for specific guidance on dietary
modifications to prevent complications during recovery.
Question 1. Which dietary instruction should the nurse include in the discharge
teaching plan?
A. Maintain a low-fat diet for 6 weeks to reduce bile demand
B. Follow a high-protein, high-calorie diet to promote incision healing
C. Begin a clear liquid diet for the first 2 weeks post-discharge
D. Avoid all dairy products permanently to prevent gallstone recurrence
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
After laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the liver continues to produce bile but no longer
stores it in a concentrated form. A low-fat diet for approximately 4–6 weeks reduces the
demand for bile and minimizes gastrointestinal distress, bloating, and diarrhea. Option B
is incorrect because while protein is important, high-fat content would strain the
digestive system. Option C is unnecessary beyond the immediate postoperative period.
,Option D is incorrect because dairy avoidance is not required unless the client has
concurrent lactose intolerance.
Question 2. A client hospitalized with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to
both legs is prescribed a high-calorie, high-protein diet. Which breakfast
selection should the nurse encourage the client to consume?
A. Oatmeal with sliced banana and herbal tea
B. Scrambled eggs, sausage, and orange juice
C. Whole wheat toast with jelly and black coffee
D. Fresh fruit salad with low-fat yogurt
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Burn injuries create a hypermetabolic state with significant protein and calorie losses
through wound exudate. Scrambled eggs and sausage provide high biological value
protein and calories necessary for wound healing and tissue regeneration. Orange juice
offers vitamin C for collagen synthesis. Option A lacks adequate protein. Option C is
insufficient in protein and calories. Option D is too low in protein and energy density for
burn recovery needs.
Question 3. A nurse instructs a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus to avoid
refined sugars and simple carbohydrates. Which food selection indicates the
client understands the dietary teaching?
A. White rice with stir-fried vegetables
B. Avocado slices with lemon juice
C. Baked potato with sour cream
D. Pretzels with hummus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Avocado is rich in monounsaturated fats and fiber with minimal carbohydrate impact,
making it ideal for glycemic control. White rice (A), baked potatoes (C), and pretzels (D)
are high in carbohydrates that rapidly convert to glucose, potentially causing
,hyperglycemia. The nurse should reinforce that healthy fats and fiber slow glucose
absorption.
Question 4. A client scheduled for abdominal surgery later today is prescribed a
clear liquid breakfast. The client requests a small cup of chocolate ice cream.
Which action should the nurse take?
A. Provide the ice cream because it melts into a liquid at room temperature
B. Explain that a popsicle or gelatin cup can be offered instead
C. Notify the surgeon that the client is noncompliant with NPO status
D. Allow the ice cream because it provides needed calories before surgery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Clear liquid diets include transparent or translucent foods that leave minimal residue,
such as water, clear broths, gelatin, and popsicles. Chocolate ice cream is not
considered a clear liquid because it contains milk fat, cocoa solids, and residue that
increases aspiration risk and gastric volume. Option B provides an appropriate
therapeutic alternative while maintaining preoperative safety.
Question 5. A client with glomerulonephritis is preparing for discharge and asks
which diet to follow at home. Which dietary teaching should the nurse prioritize?
A. Increase protein intake to 2 g/kg/day to compensate for urinary losses
B. Restrict sodium-rich foods and monitor fluid intake
C. Follow a high-potassium diet to prevent cardiac complications
D. Consume a high-phosphorus diet to maintain bone health
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Glomerulonephritis impairs renal filtration, leading to sodium and water retention,
edema, and hypertension. Restricting sodium and monitoring fluids prevents fluid
overload and further renal damage. High protein (A) would increase nitrogenous waste.
High potassium (C) and high phosphorus (D) are contraindicated because damaged
kidneys cannot excrete these electrolytes effectively, risking hyperkalemia and
hyperphosphatemia.
,Question 6. An older adult client with unintentional weight loss and declining
physical health reports skipping meals to afford prescribed medications. Which
action is best for the home health nurse to implement first?
A. Arrange Meals on Wheels delivery for the client
B. Consult with social services regarding medication and food assistance programs
C. Teach the client about low-cost nutritious meal preparation
D. Recommend the client switch to generic medications
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
This scenario describes a social determinant of health issue—food insecurity due to
medication costs. While all options have merit, consulting social services (B) addresses
the root cause by connecting the client to resources such as prescription assistance
programs, SNAP benefits, and community food programs. This is the most
comprehensive initial intervention.
Question 7. The nurse is admitting an older adult client with possible
malnutrition. Which assessment parameter is most indicative of the client's
current nutritional status?
A. Serum prealbumin level
B. Body mass index (BMI)
C. Triceps skinfold thickness
D. Hemoglobin concentration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
BMI (weight in kg/height in m²) is a quick, noninvasive, and widely used screening tool
for nutritional status, particularly in older adults. While prealbumin (A) is sensitive to
acute changes, it is also affected by inflammation and hydration status. Triceps skinfold
(C) measures subcutaneous fat but requires skill and may be unreliable in edematous
patients. Hemoglobin (D) reflects iron status and oxygen-carrying capacity, not overall
nutrition.
, D440 (OA) Set 2
Case Study: Adolescent with Type 1 Diabetes
An adolescent male, approximately 14 years old, became unresponsive at soccer
practice. Coaches called an ambulance. The client has type 1 diabetes. Friends said he
was complaining of not feeling well earlier that day. He didn't seem to eat much at lunch
but had cheese and nuts before practice. The client is known to self-administer insulin.
There is no history of smoking or alcohol.
Vital Signs & Assessment:
• Height: 65 inches (165 cm)
• Weight: 110 lbs (50 kg)
• BMI: 18.3 kg/m²
• Temperature: 37°C (98.6°F)
• Blood Pressure: 130/83 mmHg
• Pulse: 97 bpm
• O₂ Saturation: 98%
• Respirations: 18/min
• Blood Glucose: 50 mg/dL (2.8 mmol/L)
1. The nurse recognizes that this client's blood glucose level indicates which
condition?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypoglycemia
,C. Normal glucose tolerance
D. Diabetic ketoacidosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A blood glucose level below 70 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia. The client
consumed noncarbohydrate foods (cheese and nuts) before practice, which would not
support normal blood glucose during physical activity. The elevated blood pressure
(130/83 mmHg) is a compensatory response to low blood glucose, not hypotension.
There is no evidence of hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis in this scenario.
2. Which intervention is the priority for the nurse to implement for this client?
A. Administer insulin subcutaneously
B. Provide 15 grams of simple carbohydrates
C. Give 30 grams of fruit juice immediately
D. Monitor electrolytes and fluid balance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
During hypoglycemic episodes, 15 grams of simple carbohydrates should be consumed,
such as sugar, honey, fruit juice, or glucose tablets. Wheat bread is not a simple
carbohydrate, and although it contains carbohydrates, the body responds best to simple
sugars. Administering insulin would further lower blood glucose and is contraindicated.
While 30 grams of fruit juice is a simple carbohydrate, it is too much to administer at one
time and may result in rebound hyperglycemia. Monitoring electrolytes and fluids is
important but secondary to blood glucose regulation, which is the first priority.
3. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate regarding ongoing care for
this client?
A. "It is important to monitor your insulin dosage after you regain consciousness."
B. "You should avoid fluids until your blood glucose stabilizes."
C. "We need to monitor your vitals and blood glucose to ensure you maintain
consciousness."
D. "Your blood pressure indicates you are experiencing hypotension."
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Individuals may experience loss of consciousness if blood glucose remains low for too
long. Therefore, it is important to monitor vital signs and blood glucose to ensure the
client maintains consciousness until glucose levels are normalized. Insulin was not
provided in this scenario, so there is no reason to monitor the dosage. While hydration
is important, blood glucose regulation is the first priority. The client's blood pressure is
elevated due to the body's natural response to low blood glucose, not hypotensive.
4. Which food selections by a client with celiac disease indicate the nurse's
dietary teaching was successful? Select all that apply.
[ ] A. Green beans
[ ] B. Baked potato
[ ] C. Turkey sandwich on whole-wheat bread
[ ] D. Grilled fish
[ ] E. Whole-wheat cereal
[ ] F. Scrambled eggs
[ ] G. Noodles with marinara sauce
[ ] H. Low-fat milk
Correct Answers: A, B, D, F, H
Rationale:
Clients with celiac disease must follow a gluten-free diet. Green beans (fresh
vegetables), baked potatoes, grilled fish, scrambled eggs, and low-fat milk are all
naturally gluten-free and safe. Turkey sandwiches on whole-wheat bread, whole-wheat
cereal, and noodles contain gluten from wheat and must be avoided. Celiac clients must
avoid gluten found in wheat, oats, and barley.
5. Which nursing actions are appropriate when providing care to a hospitalized
infant diagnosed with failure to thrive (FTT) due to inadequate caloric intake?
Select all that apply.
[ ] A. Consult with social work to determine if the family is living in poverty
[ ] B. Assess the infant's juice consumption
[ ] C. Teach the parents how to properly prepare formula
, D440 (OA) Set 3
1. A nurse is conducting a nutritional assessment for a healthy 35-year-old client.
Which guideline should the nurse use as the preferred reference for evaluating
whether the client’s diet meets optimal nutrient intake standards?
A. Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA) alone
B. Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs)
C. MyPlate daily checklist
D. Estimated Average Requirements (EAR)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) are the comprehensive set of reference values
used for assessing and planning diets in healthy people. They include the RDA, EAR,
Adequate Intake (AI), and Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL), providing a complete
framework for evaluating nutrient adequacy and preventing both deficiency and excess.
While MyPlate offers practical food guidance, the DRIs are the scientific standard for
nutrient evaluation.
2. A community health nurse is developing a nutrition education program for
adults over 50. At what age do the Dietary Reference Intakes indicate that nutrient
requirements begin to change for this population?
A. 40 years old
B. 50 years old
C. 60 years old
D. 65 years old
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The DRIs specify that nutrient requirements change at 50 years of age for adults. This
milestone triggers adjustments in recommendations for several nutrients, including
HESI Nutrition
Objective Assessment
(3 Full Exams Set)
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢250 OA Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢ (Victoria + Kareem + Stephanie Study Guides)
➢ Expert Rationales included.
, WGU D440 HESI NUTRITION OA
Preview Pages Below
Get the Complete PDF
After Purchase
If you require further clarification or in need of any study resources, feel
free to Message me.
Preview the pages below before purchasing
,Table of Contents
D440 (OA) Set 1 ................................................................. 2
D440 (OA) Set 2 ............................................................... 34
D440 (OA) Set 3 ............................................................... 82
D440 (Victoria + Kareem + Stephanie Study Guides) ....... 121
D440 (OA) Set 1
Case Study: Postoperative Dietary Management
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who underwent a laparoscopic
cholecystectomy earlier in the week. The client asks for specific guidance on dietary
modifications to prevent complications during recovery.
Question 1. Which dietary instruction should the nurse include in the discharge
teaching plan?
A. Maintain a low-fat diet for 6 weeks to reduce bile demand
B. Follow a high-protein, high-calorie diet to promote incision healing
C. Begin a clear liquid diet for the first 2 weeks post-discharge
D. Avoid all dairy products permanently to prevent gallstone recurrence
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
After laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the liver continues to produce bile but no longer
stores it in a concentrated form. A low-fat diet for approximately 4–6 weeks reduces the
demand for bile and minimizes gastrointestinal distress, bloating, and diarrhea. Option B
is incorrect because while protein is important, high-fat content would strain the
digestive system. Option C is unnecessary beyond the immediate postoperative period.
,Option D is incorrect because dairy avoidance is not required unless the client has
concurrent lactose intolerance.
Question 2. A client hospitalized with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to
both legs is prescribed a high-calorie, high-protein diet. Which breakfast
selection should the nurse encourage the client to consume?
A. Oatmeal with sliced banana and herbal tea
B. Scrambled eggs, sausage, and orange juice
C. Whole wheat toast with jelly and black coffee
D. Fresh fruit salad with low-fat yogurt
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Burn injuries create a hypermetabolic state with significant protein and calorie losses
through wound exudate. Scrambled eggs and sausage provide high biological value
protein and calories necessary for wound healing and tissue regeneration. Orange juice
offers vitamin C for collagen synthesis. Option A lacks adequate protein. Option C is
insufficient in protein and calories. Option D is too low in protein and energy density for
burn recovery needs.
Question 3. A nurse instructs a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus to avoid
refined sugars and simple carbohydrates. Which food selection indicates the
client understands the dietary teaching?
A. White rice with stir-fried vegetables
B. Avocado slices with lemon juice
C. Baked potato with sour cream
D. Pretzels with hummus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Avocado is rich in monounsaturated fats and fiber with minimal carbohydrate impact,
making it ideal for glycemic control. White rice (A), baked potatoes (C), and pretzels (D)
are high in carbohydrates that rapidly convert to glucose, potentially causing
,hyperglycemia. The nurse should reinforce that healthy fats and fiber slow glucose
absorption.
Question 4. A client scheduled for abdominal surgery later today is prescribed a
clear liquid breakfast. The client requests a small cup of chocolate ice cream.
Which action should the nurse take?
A. Provide the ice cream because it melts into a liquid at room temperature
B. Explain that a popsicle or gelatin cup can be offered instead
C. Notify the surgeon that the client is noncompliant with NPO status
D. Allow the ice cream because it provides needed calories before surgery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Clear liquid diets include transparent or translucent foods that leave minimal residue,
such as water, clear broths, gelatin, and popsicles. Chocolate ice cream is not
considered a clear liquid because it contains milk fat, cocoa solids, and residue that
increases aspiration risk and gastric volume. Option B provides an appropriate
therapeutic alternative while maintaining preoperative safety.
Question 5. A client with glomerulonephritis is preparing for discharge and asks
which diet to follow at home. Which dietary teaching should the nurse prioritize?
A. Increase protein intake to 2 g/kg/day to compensate for urinary losses
B. Restrict sodium-rich foods and monitor fluid intake
C. Follow a high-potassium diet to prevent cardiac complications
D. Consume a high-phosphorus diet to maintain bone health
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Glomerulonephritis impairs renal filtration, leading to sodium and water retention,
edema, and hypertension. Restricting sodium and monitoring fluids prevents fluid
overload and further renal damage. High protein (A) would increase nitrogenous waste.
High potassium (C) and high phosphorus (D) are contraindicated because damaged
kidneys cannot excrete these electrolytes effectively, risking hyperkalemia and
hyperphosphatemia.
,Question 6. An older adult client with unintentional weight loss and declining
physical health reports skipping meals to afford prescribed medications. Which
action is best for the home health nurse to implement first?
A. Arrange Meals on Wheels delivery for the client
B. Consult with social services regarding medication and food assistance programs
C. Teach the client about low-cost nutritious meal preparation
D. Recommend the client switch to generic medications
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
This scenario describes a social determinant of health issue—food insecurity due to
medication costs. While all options have merit, consulting social services (B) addresses
the root cause by connecting the client to resources such as prescription assistance
programs, SNAP benefits, and community food programs. This is the most
comprehensive initial intervention.
Question 7. The nurse is admitting an older adult client with possible
malnutrition. Which assessment parameter is most indicative of the client's
current nutritional status?
A. Serum prealbumin level
B. Body mass index (BMI)
C. Triceps skinfold thickness
D. Hemoglobin concentration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
BMI (weight in kg/height in m²) is a quick, noninvasive, and widely used screening tool
for nutritional status, particularly in older adults. While prealbumin (A) is sensitive to
acute changes, it is also affected by inflammation and hydration status. Triceps skinfold
(C) measures subcutaneous fat but requires skill and may be unreliable in edematous
patients. Hemoglobin (D) reflects iron status and oxygen-carrying capacity, not overall
nutrition.
, D440 (OA) Set 2
Case Study: Adolescent with Type 1 Diabetes
An adolescent male, approximately 14 years old, became unresponsive at soccer
practice. Coaches called an ambulance. The client has type 1 diabetes. Friends said he
was complaining of not feeling well earlier that day. He didn't seem to eat much at lunch
but had cheese and nuts before practice. The client is known to self-administer insulin.
There is no history of smoking or alcohol.
Vital Signs & Assessment:
• Height: 65 inches (165 cm)
• Weight: 110 lbs (50 kg)
• BMI: 18.3 kg/m²
• Temperature: 37°C (98.6°F)
• Blood Pressure: 130/83 mmHg
• Pulse: 97 bpm
• O₂ Saturation: 98%
• Respirations: 18/min
• Blood Glucose: 50 mg/dL (2.8 mmol/L)
1. The nurse recognizes that this client's blood glucose level indicates which
condition?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypoglycemia
,C. Normal glucose tolerance
D. Diabetic ketoacidosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A blood glucose level below 70 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia. The client
consumed noncarbohydrate foods (cheese and nuts) before practice, which would not
support normal blood glucose during physical activity. The elevated blood pressure
(130/83 mmHg) is a compensatory response to low blood glucose, not hypotension.
There is no evidence of hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis in this scenario.
2. Which intervention is the priority for the nurse to implement for this client?
A. Administer insulin subcutaneously
B. Provide 15 grams of simple carbohydrates
C. Give 30 grams of fruit juice immediately
D. Monitor electrolytes and fluid balance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
During hypoglycemic episodes, 15 grams of simple carbohydrates should be consumed,
such as sugar, honey, fruit juice, or glucose tablets. Wheat bread is not a simple
carbohydrate, and although it contains carbohydrates, the body responds best to simple
sugars. Administering insulin would further lower blood glucose and is contraindicated.
While 30 grams of fruit juice is a simple carbohydrate, it is too much to administer at one
time and may result in rebound hyperglycemia. Monitoring electrolytes and fluids is
important but secondary to blood glucose regulation, which is the first priority.
3. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate regarding ongoing care for
this client?
A. "It is important to monitor your insulin dosage after you regain consciousness."
B. "You should avoid fluids until your blood glucose stabilizes."
C. "We need to monitor your vitals and blood glucose to ensure you maintain
consciousness."
D. "Your blood pressure indicates you are experiencing hypotension."
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Individuals may experience loss of consciousness if blood glucose remains low for too
long. Therefore, it is important to monitor vital signs and blood glucose to ensure the
client maintains consciousness until glucose levels are normalized. Insulin was not
provided in this scenario, so there is no reason to monitor the dosage. While hydration
is important, blood glucose regulation is the first priority. The client's blood pressure is
elevated due to the body's natural response to low blood glucose, not hypotensive.
4. Which food selections by a client with celiac disease indicate the nurse's
dietary teaching was successful? Select all that apply.
[ ] A. Green beans
[ ] B. Baked potato
[ ] C. Turkey sandwich on whole-wheat bread
[ ] D. Grilled fish
[ ] E. Whole-wheat cereal
[ ] F. Scrambled eggs
[ ] G. Noodles with marinara sauce
[ ] H. Low-fat milk
Correct Answers: A, B, D, F, H
Rationale:
Clients with celiac disease must follow a gluten-free diet. Green beans (fresh
vegetables), baked potatoes, grilled fish, scrambled eggs, and low-fat milk are all
naturally gluten-free and safe. Turkey sandwiches on whole-wheat bread, whole-wheat
cereal, and noodles contain gluten from wheat and must be avoided. Celiac clients must
avoid gluten found in wheat, oats, and barley.
5. Which nursing actions are appropriate when providing care to a hospitalized
infant diagnosed with failure to thrive (FTT) due to inadequate caloric intake?
Select all that apply.
[ ] A. Consult with social work to determine if the family is living in poverty
[ ] B. Assess the infant's juice consumption
[ ] C. Teach the parents how to properly prepare formula
, D440 (OA) Set 3
1. A nurse is conducting a nutritional assessment for a healthy 35-year-old client.
Which guideline should the nurse use as the preferred reference for evaluating
whether the client’s diet meets optimal nutrient intake standards?
A. Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA) alone
B. Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs)
C. MyPlate daily checklist
D. Estimated Average Requirements (EAR)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) are the comprehensive set of reference values
used for assessing and planning diets in healthy people. They include the RDA, EAR,
Adequate Intake (AI), and Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL), providing a complete
framework for evaluating nutrient adequacy and preventing both deficiency and excess.
While MyPlate offers practical food guidance, the DRIs are the scientific standard for
nutrient evaluation.
2. A community health nurse is developing a nutrition education program for
adults over 50. At what age do the Dietary Reference Intakes indicate that nutrient
requirements begin to change for this population?
A. 40 years old
B. 50 years old
C. 60 years old
D. 65 years old
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The DRIs specify that nutrient requirements change at 50 years of age for adults. This
milestone triggers adjustments in recommendations for several nutrients, including
