2026 ATI RN
COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR
500+ QUESTIONS BANK
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE SCENARIOS)
Answers with detailed Rationale
What You’ll Get:
• 500+ questions
• quick review
• Printable, easy-to-study PDF
Not affiliated with ATI, VATI or NCLEX. For study purposes only.
,PREVIEW QUESTIONS BELOW
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of
any study resources, feel free to Message me."
,Table of Contents
QUESTIONS BANK (SECTION) ............................................. 2
NCLEX NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS ...................................... 237
QUESTIONS BANK (SECTION)
1. A nurse in an outpatient clinic is assessing a client who is pregnant for unsafe
behaviors during pregnancy. Which of the following findings indicates a need for
further evaluation?
A. The client started working in a parking garage 3 months ago
B. The client reports eating pasteurized feta cheese twice this week
C. The client has been swimming laps at a community pool daily
D. The client states she takes a prenatal vitamin every morning
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Working in a parking garage exposes the client to carbon monoxide from
vehicle exhaust, which crosses the placenta and reduces oxygen delivery to the fetus.
This requires immediate occupational counseling and possible work restriction.
Pasteurized cheese (B), swimming (C), and prenatal vitamins (D) are safe, expected
maternal behaviors and do not require intervention.
2. A nurse is preparing to perform a heel stick on an infant. Which of the following
actions should the nurse plan to take to reduce the infant's pain during the
procedure?
A. Apply a topical anesthetic 30 minutes before the stick
B. Promote skin-to-skin contact with the infant's guardian during the procedure
C. Give the infant a pacifier dipped in sucrose immediately after the stick
,D. Perform the procedure while the infant is in a supine, unswaddled position
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Skin-to-skin contact (kangaroo care) during minor painful procedures is an
evidence-based, non-pharmacological intervention that reduces pain scores through
maternal regulation of the infant's autonomic nervous system. Topical anesthetic (A) is
impractical for a routine heel stick, sucrose (C) is most effective when given 1–2
minutes before the procedure, and leaving the infant unswaddled (D) increases distress.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has lung cancer and has a sealed radiation
implant. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Wear a lead apron when providing care
B. Close the door to the client's room
C. Allow pregnant visitors to remain at the bedside for up to 2 hours
D. Limit visitors to 30 min per visit
Correct Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: A sealed implant (brachytherapy) emits radiation to a localized area; time,
distance, and shielding principles apply. A lead apron (A) protects the nurse, closing the
door (B) limits radiation exposure to others in the hallway, and limiting visitor time (D)
reduces their cumulative dose. Pregnant individuals and children should not visit (C is
incorrect) because the fetus and pediatric tissues are highly radiosensitive.
4. A nurse in a surgical clinic is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled
for a modified radical mastectomy. Which of the following statements by the
client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will complete my arm exercises four times a day starting the morning after surgery."
B. "I will have my blood pressure taken in my affected arm at my follow-up visit."
C. "I will lift objects heavier than 10 lb as soon as I get home."
D. "I will keep my arm positioned below my heart level while I am in bed."
Correct Answer: A
,Rationale: Early, frequent range-of-motion exercises on the affected side prevent
lymphedema and axillary web syndrome after mastectomy with lymph node dissection.
Blood pressure (B), IVs, and venipuncture should be avoided in the affected arm to
prevent lymphedema. Lifting restrictions (C) are required for several weeks, and the arm
should be elevated (D), not dependent, to promote lymphatic drainage.
5. A nurse in an emergency department is triaging clients following an external
natural disaster. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify to
receive care first?
A. A client who has an open fracture of the left tibia with a distal pulse present
B. A client who has a 4-inch laceration on the forearm that is bleeding steadily
C. A client who reports abdominal pain rated 6/10 and is walking independently
D. A client who has flail chest and a respiratory rate of 32/min
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In disaster triage, the nurse prioritizes life-threatening airway, breathing, and
circulation (ABC) problems. Flail chest with tachypnea (32/min) signals impending
respiratory failure from paradoxical chest movement and pulmonary contusion. This
client needs immediate airway support. The other clients have serious but non-
immediately-lethal injuries and can be triaged as delayed (B, C) or urgent (A).
6. A nurse is reviewing laboratory findings for a client who is to receive a dose of
enoxaparin. For which of the following laboratory values should the nurse
withhold the dose and notify the provider?
A. aPTT 35 seconds (control 30–40 seconds)
B. INR 1.1 (therapeutic range 2.0–3.0)
C. Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL (12–16 g/dL)
D. Platelets 80,000/mm³ (150,000–400,000/mm³)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH). Although routine
aPTT monitoring is not required, platelet counts must be monitored because LMWH can
trigger heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). A platelet count of 80,000/mm³
represents moderate thrombocytopenia and warrants withholding the dose and notifying
,the provider for further evaluation. The other values are either normal (A, C) or not yet
therapeutic for a different condition (B).
7. A nurse is preparing to administer morphine 30 mg oral suspension to a client.
The amount available is morphine 100 mg/5 mL oral solution. How many mL
should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading
zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
A. 0.6 mL
B. 1.5 mL
C. 2.0 mL
D. 3.3 mL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Using the ratio method:
(30 mg ÷ 100 mg) × 5 mL = 1.5 mL.
Morphine is a high-alert Schedule II opioid. The nurse should verify the dose with
another RN per institutional policy, check the client's respiratory rate and sedation level
before administration, and have naloxone readily available.
8. A nurse manager is teaching a group of nurses about bacterial meningitis.
Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. "Bacterial meningitis can be prevented with vaccination."
B. "Bacterial meningitis is most commonly caused by foodborne pathogens."
C. "Antibiotics are contraindicated in the first 48 hours of bacterial meningitis."
D. "Isolation is not required because bacterial meningitis is not contagious."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Vaccines against Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib), Streptococcus
pneumoniae, and Neisseria meningitidis have dramatically reduced bacterial meningitis
incidence. Bacterial meningitis is transmitted via respiratory droplets (not food, B),
requires immediate IV antibiotics (C is incorrect), and droplet precautions are initiated
until 24 hours of effective antibiotic therapy (D is incorrect).
,9. A nurse is teaching a group of parents about car seat safety. Which of the
following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. "Children should ride in the front seat starting at age 8."
B. "Rear-facing car seats should be used until the child is at least 12 months old."
C. "Booster seats are appropriate once a child reaches 30 lb, regardless of height."
D. "Booster seats with belt-positioning should be used for school-age children until 8
years of age."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The CDC and AAP recommend belt-positioning booster seats until a child is
4 ft 9 in tall and between 8–12 years old, ensuring the seat belt fits properly across the
chest and thighs. Children should remain rear-facing until they exceed the seat's
height/weight limits (often 2+ years, making B incorrect). The back seat is safest for all
children under 13 (A is incorrect). Booster use depends on height, not weight alone (C is
incorrect).
10. A nurse is teaching a client about routine prenatal testing. Which of the
following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. "You will have an amniocentesis at your first visit to screen for chromosomal
abnormalities."
B. "You will have a rectovaginal culture to test for group B streptococcus at 35 to 37
weeks."
C. "You will have a fasting blood glucose test at 12 weeks to rule out diabetes."
D. "You will have a nuchal translucency ultrasound at 28 weeks to assess fetal growth."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Universal GBS screening via rectovaginal culture occurs at 35–37 weeks'
gestation to determine the need for intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis. Amniocentesis
(A) is offered selectively, not routinely. Diabetes screening (C) occurs at 24–28 weeks.
Nuchal translucency (D) is a first-trimester screening tool, not a third-trimester growth
scan.
,11. A charge nurse is discussing communication techniques to use with a client
who has hearing loss with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following
statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates the teaching was effective?
A. "I will speak in a high-pitched voice so the client can hear me better."
B. "I will stand behind the client when giving instructions."
C. "I will cover my mouth while speaking to protect my airway."
D. "I will face the client when I am speaking."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Facing the client allows them to use lip-reading, facial expressions, and
residual hearing. High-pitched tones (A) are harder to hear for many clients with
presbycusis. Standing behind the client (B) eliminates visual cues. Covering the mouth
(C) blocks lip-reading and muffles sound.
12. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who had an exacerbation of
COPD. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the
teaching?
A. "You should drink at least 2 L of water with each meal to thin secretions."
B. "You should eat three large meals daily to meet your caloric needs."
C. "During meals, you should eat foods with a high-calorie content first."
D. "You should avoid all protein sources because they increase carbon dioxide
production."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients with COPD have increased work of breathing and require 25–30
kcal/kg daily. Eating high-calorie foods first prevents early satiety from abdominal
pressure and dyspnea. Large meals (B) and excessive fluids with meals (A) increase
dyspnea. Protein should not be avoided (D); it is essential for respiratory muscle
maintenance.
13. A nurse administered 400 mg of ibuprofen to a client 2 hr ago to treat pain
following a biopsy. The client is crying and states, "It really still hurts a lot."
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
,A. Ask the client to rate their pain on a scale of 0 to 10
B. Notify the provider and request a prescription for morphine
C. Tell the client that ibuprofen should have relieved the pain by now
D. Document that the client is exhibiting drug-seeking behavior
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pain is subjective and requires reassessment using a validated scale before
any intervention. The nurse must gather data (Recognize/Analyze cues) before
escalating to opioids (B) or making judgments about drug-seeking (D). Dismissing the
client's report (C) violates the ethical principle of fidelity and the ANA position on pain
management.
14. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for clozapine. Which
of the following should the nurse recognize as an adverse effect of this
medication?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Agranulocytosis
D. Thrombocytosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clozapine carries a black-box warning for agranulocytosis (ANC
<1,500/mm³). The nurse must verify an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) within the past
week before dispensing the medication and monitor weekly for the first 6 months. The
client must report fever or sore throat immediately. Aplastic anemia (B) is associated
with carbamazepine; hyperglycemia (A) is more typical of atypical antipsychotics like
olanzapine.
15. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has heart failure and
notes a serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L (3.5–5.0 mEq/L). Which of the
following medications should the nurse withhold?
A. Furosemide
B. Spironolactone
, C. Digoxin
D. Lisinopril
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that inhibits aldosterone. In
heart failure, it reduces mortality but significantly increases the risk of hyperkalemia,
especially when combined with ACE inhibitors (D) or in renal impairment. A potassium of
5.2 mEq/L is above normal and warrants withholding spironolactone and notifying the
provider. Furosemide (A) is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss and would not be
withheld for this level.
16. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of terminal advanced
lung cancer. Which of the following is an expected stage of grief based on the
stages of dying?
A. Denial
B. Acceptance
C. Bargaining
D. Depression
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: According to Kübler-Ross, denial is often the first psychological defense
mechanism used to buffer the emotional shock of a terminal diagnosis. While
acceptance (B) is the final stage, the nurse should expect the client to move through
denial first. The nurse validates the client's feelings without forcing progression through
stages.
17. A nurse is caring for a client who has not completed their advance directives.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Refuse to administer pain medication until the client signs a living will
B. Ask the client's partner to sign the advance directive as a witness
C. Ensure the client has identified a health care proxy to make decisions if the client
becomes unable
COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR
500+ QUESTIONS BANK
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE SCENARIOS)
Answers with detailed Rationale
What You’ll Get:
• 500+ questions
• quick review
• Printable, easy-to-study PDF
Not affiliated with ATI, VATI or NCLEX. For study purposes only.
,PREVIEW QUESTIONS BELOW
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of
any study resources, feel free to Message me."
,Table of Contents
QUESTIONS BANK (SECTION) ............................................. 2
NCLEX NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS ...................................... 237
QUESTIONS BANK (SECTION)
1. A nurse in an outpatient clinic is assessing a client who is pregnant for unsafe
behaviors during pregnancy. Which of the following findings indicates a need for
further evaluation?
A. The client started working in a parking garage 3 months ago
B. The client reports eating pasteurized feta cheese twice this week
C. The client has been swimming laps at a community pool daily
D. The client states she takes a prenatal vitamin every morning
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Working in a parking garage exposes the client to carbon monoxide from
vehicle exhaust, which crosses the placenta and reduces oxygen delivery to the fetus.
This requires immediate occupational counseling and possible work restriction.
Pasteurized cheese (B), swimming (C), and prenatal vitamins (D) are safe, expected
maternal behaviors and do not require intervention.
2. A nurse is preparing to perform a heel stick on an infant. Which of the following
actions should the nurse plan to take to reduce the infant's pain during the
procedure?
A. Apply a topical anesthetic 30 minutes before the stick
B. Promote skin-to-skin contact with the infant's guardian during the procedure
C. Give the infant a pacifier dipped in sucrose immediately after the stick
,D. Perform the procedure while the infant is in a supine, unswaddled position
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Skin-to-skin contact (kangaroo care) during minor painful procedures is an
evidence-based, non-pharmacological intervention that reduces pain scores through
maternal regulation of the infant's autonomic nervous system. Topical anesthetic (A) is
impractical for a routine heel stick, sucrose (C) is most effective when given 1–2
minutes before the procedure, and leaving the infant unswaddled (D) increases distress.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has lung cancer and has a sealed radiation
implant. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Wear a lead apron when providing care
B. Close the door to the client's room
C. Allow pregnant visitors to remain at the bedside for up to 2 hours
D. Limit visitors to 30 min per visit
Correct Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: A sealed implant (brachytherapy) emits radiation to a localized area; time,
distance, and shielding principles apply. A lead apron (A) protects the nurse, closing the
door (B) limits radiation exposure to others in the hallway, and limiting visitor time (D)
reduces their cumulative dose. Pregnant individuals and children should not visit (C is
incorrect) because the fetus and pediatric tissues are highly radiosensitive.
4. A nurse in a surgical clinic is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled
for a modified radical mastectomy. Which of the following statements by the
client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will complete my arm exercises four times a day starting the morning after surgery."
B. "I will have my blood pressure taken in my affected arm at my follow-up visit."
C. "I will lift objects heavier than 10 lb as soon as I get home."
D. "I will keep my arm positioned below my heart level while I am in bed."
Correct Answer: A
,Rationale: Early, frequent range-of-motion exercises on the affected side prevent
lymphedema and axillary web syndrome after mastectomy with lymph node dissection.
Blood pressure (B), IVs, and venipuncture should be avoided in the affected arm to
prevent lymphedema. Lifting restrictions (C) are required for several weeks, and the arm
should be elevated (D), not dependent, to promote lymphatic drainage.
5. A nurse in an emergency department is triaging clients following an external
natural disaster. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify to
receive care first?
A. A client who has an open fracture of the left tibia with a distal pulse present
B. A client who has a 4-inch laceration on the forearm that is bleeding steadily
C. A client who reports abdominal pain rated 6/10 and is walking independently
D. A client who has flail chest and a respiratory rate of 32/min
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In disaster triage, the nurse prioritizes life-threatening airway, breathing, and
circulation (ABC) problems. Flail chest with tachypnea (32/min) signals impending
respiratory failure from paradoxical chest movement and pulmonary contusion. This
client needs immediate airway support. The other clients have serious but non-
immediately-lethal injuries and can be triaged as delayed (B, C) or urgent (A).
6. A nurse is reviewing laboratory findings for a client who is to receive a dose of
enoxaparin. For which of the following laboratory values should the nurse
withhold the dose and notify the provider?
A. aPTT 35 seconds (control 30–40 seconds)
B. INR 1.1 (therapeutic range 2.0–3.0)
C. Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL (12–16 g/dL)
D. Platelets 80,000/mm³ (150,000–400,000/mm³)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH). Although routine
aPTT monitoring is not required, platelet counts must be monitored because LMWH can
trigger heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). A platelet count of 80,000/mm³
represents moderate thrombocytopenia and warrants withholding the dose and notifying
,the provider for further evaluation. The other values are either normal (A, C) or not yet
therapeutic for a different condition (B).
7. A nurse is preparing to administer morphine 30 mg oral suspension to a client.
The amount available is morphine 100 mg/5 mL oral solution. How many mL
should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading
zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
A. 0.6 mL
B. 1.5 mL
C. 2.0 mL
D. 3.3 mL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Using the ratio method:
(30 mg ÷ 100 mg) × 5 mL = 1.5 mL.
Morphine is a high-alert Schedule II opioid. The nurse should verify the dose with
another RN per institutional policy, check the client's respiratory rate and sedation level
before administration, and have naloxone readily available.
8. A nurse manager is teaching a group of nurses about bacterial meningitis.
Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. "Bacterial meningitis can be prevented with vaccination."
B. "Bacterial meningitis is most commonly caused by foodborne pathogens."
C. "Antibiotics are contraindicated in the first 48 hours of bacterial meningitis."
D. "Isolation is not required because bacterial meningitis is not contagious."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Vaccines against Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib), Streptococcus
pneumoniae, and Neisseria meningitidis have dramatically reduced bacterial meningitis
incidence. Bacterial meningitis is transmitted via respiratory droplets (not food, B),
requires immediate IV antibiotics (C is incorrect), and droplet precautions are initiated
until 24 hours of effective antibiotic therapy (D is incorrect).
,9. A nurse is teaching a group of parents about car seat safety. Which of the
following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. "Children should ride in the front seat starting at age 8."
B. "Rear-facing car seats should be used until the child is at least 12 months old."
C. "Booster seats are appropriate once a child reaches 30 lb, regardless of height."
D. "Booster seats with belt-positioning should be used for school-age children until 8
years of age."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The CDC and AAP recommend belt-positioning booster seats until a child is
4 ft 9 in tall and between 8–12 years old, ensuring the seat belt fits properly across the
chest and thighs. Children should remain rear-facing until they exceed the seat's
height/weight limits (often 2+ years, making B incorrect). The back seat is safest for all
children under 13 (A is incorrect). Booster use depends on height, not weight alone (C is
incorrect).
10. A nurse is teaching a client about routine prenatal testing. Which of the
following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. "You will have an amniocentesis at your first visit to screen for chromosomal
abnormalities."
B. "You will have a rectovaginal culture to test for group B streptococcus at 35 to 37
weeks."
C. "You will have a fasting blood glucose test at 12 weeks to rule out diabetes."
D. "You will have a nuchal translucency ultrasound at 28 weeks to assess fetal growth."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Universal GBS screening via rectovaginal culture occurs at 35–37 weeks'
gestation to determine the need for intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis. Amniocentesis
(A) is offered selectively, not routinely. Diabetes screening (C) occurs at 24–28 weeks.
Nuchal translucency (D) is a first-trimester screening tool, not a third-trimester growth
scan.
,11. A charge nurse is discussing communication techniques to use with a client
who has hearing loss with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following
statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates the teaching was effective?
A. "I will speak in a high-pitched voice so the client can hear me better."
B. "I will stand behind the client when giving instructions."
C. "I will cover my mouth while speaking to protect my airway."
D. "I will face the client when I am speaking."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Facing the client allows them to use lip-reading, facial expressions, and
residual hearing. High-pitched tones (A) are harder to hear for many clients with
presbycusis. Standing behind the client (B) eliminates visual cues. Covering the mouth
(C) blocks lip-reading and muffles sound.
12. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who had an exacerbation of
COPD. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the
teaching?
A. "You should drink at least 2 L of water with each meal to thin secretions."
B. "You should eat three large meals daily to meet your caloric needs."
C. "During meals, you should eat foods with a high-calorie content first."
D. "You should avoid all protein sources because they increase carbon dioxide
production."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients with COPD have increased work of breathing and require 25–30
kcal/kg daily. Eating high-calorie foods first prevents early satiety from abdominal
pressure and dyspnea. Large meals (B) and excessive fluids with meals (A) increase
dyspnea. Protein should not be avoided (D); it is essential for respiratory muscle
maintenance.
13. A nurse administered 400 mg of ibuprofen to a client 2 hr ago to treat pain
following a biopsy. The client is crying and states, "It really still hurts a lot."
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
,A. Ask the client to rate their pain on a scale of 0 to 10
B. Notify the provider and request a prescription for morphine
C. Tell the client that ibuprofen should have relieved the pain by now
D. Document that the client is exhibiting drug-seeking behavior
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pain is subjective and requires reassessment using a validated scale before
any intervention. The nurse must gather data (Recognize/Analyze cues) before
escalating to opioids (B) or making judgments about drug-seeking (D). Dismissing the
client's report (C) violates the ethical principle of fidelity and the ANA position on pain
management.
14. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for clozapine. Which
of the following should the nurse recognize as an adverse effect of this
medication?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Agranulocytosis
D. Thrombocytosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clozapine carries a black-box warning for agranulocytosis (ANC
<1,500/mm³). The nurse must verify an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) within the past
week before dispensing the medication and monitor weekly for the first 6 months. The
client must report fever or sore throat immediately. Aplastic anemia (B) is associated
with carbamazepine; hyperglycemia (A) is more typical of atypical antipsychotics like
olanzapine.
15. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has heart failure and
notes a serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L (3.5–5.0 mEq/L). Which of the
following medications should the nurse withhold?
A. Furosemide
B. Spironolactone
, C. Digoxin
D. Lisinopril
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that inhibits aldosterone. In
heart failure, it reduces mortality but significantly increases the risk of hyperkalemia,
especially when combined with ACE inhibitors (D) or in renal impairment. A potassium of
5.2 mEq/L is above normal and warrants withholding spironolactone and notifying the
provider. Furosemide (A) is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss and would not be
withheld for this level.
16. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of terminal advanced
lung cancer. Which of the following is an expected stage of grief based on the
stages of dying?
A. Denial
B. Acceptance
C. Bargaining
D. Depression
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: According to Kübler-Ross, denial is often the first psychological defense
mechanism used to buffer the emotional shock of a terminal diagnosis. While
acceptance (B) is the final stage, the nurse should expect the client to move through
denial first. The nurse validates the client's feelings without forcing progression through
stages.
17. A nurse is caring for a client who has not completed their advance directives.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Refuse to administer pain medication until the client signs a living will
B. Ask the client's partner to sign the advance directive as a witness
C. Ensure the client has identified a health care proxy to make decisions if the client
becomes unable
