ATI RN Maternal‑Newborn Proctored Exam Test
Bank NGN 2026
Full Practice Exam ANSWER💕✔ + Rationale for
Every Option
Section 1: Signs of Pregnancy, Confirmation Tests, and Prenatal Assessment
The nurse is assessing a client who believes she is pregnant. Which finding is documented as a POSITIVE
sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Chadwick's sign
C. Fetal movement palpated by the examiner
D. Positive urine hCG test
ANSWER💕✔: C
Rationale A: Incorrect – Amenorrhea is a presumptive (subjective) sign with many other causes.
Rationale B: Incorrect – Chadwick's sign is a probable sign; cervix cyanosis can occur from other pelvic
congestion.
Rationale C: Correct – Positive signs are direct proof of the fetus: palpated fetal movement, fetal heart
tones, and ultrasound visualization.
Rationale D: Incorrect – A positive hCG test indicates the hormone only; it is a probable, not physical,
sign.
A first‑time client asks when she will first feel the baby move. The nurse should reply that quickening is
typically felt at:
A. 8–10 weeks
B. 12–14 weeks
C. 18–20 weeks
D. 26–28 weeks
,ANSWER💕✔: C
Rationale A: Incorrect – The fetus is too small to be felt at 8–10 weeks.
Rationale B: Incorrect – Movement is rarely perceived this early except by some multiparas.
Rationale C: Correct – Quickening is normally felt around 18–20 weeks (about 20 weeks gestation).
Rationale D: Incorrect – By 26–28 weeks movement has been felt for many weeks already.
Which is the most common initial test used to confirm pregnancy?
A. Urine test for hCG
B. Blood test for estrogen
C. Blood test for progesterone
D. Test for human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS)
ANSWER💕✔: A
Rationale A: Correct – Urine hCG is the most common initial test, indicating the presence of the
hormone produced after implantation.
Rationale B: Incorrect – Estrogen levels are less common and not an initial confirmation test.
Rationale C: Incorrect – Progesterone provides only additional, not initial, pregnancy information.
Rationale D: Incorrect – hCS is not typically used for initial pregnancy confirmation.
The bluish‑purple discoloration of the cervix noted during examination is documented as:
A. Hegar's sign
B. Chadwick's sign
C. Goodell's sign
D. Ballottement
ANSWER💕✔: B
Rationale A: Incorrect – Hegar's sign is softening of the lower uterine segment.
Rationale B: Correct – Chadwick's sign is cyanosis of the cervix, a probable sign of pregnancy.
Rationale C: Incorrect – Goodell's sign is softening of the cervix itself.
Rationale D: Incorrect – Ballottement is rebound of the fetus when tapped, also probable but not
discoloration.
Amenorrhea, nausea, and fatigue reported by the client are classified as:
A. Positive signs
,B. Probable signs
C. Presumptive signs
D. Diagnostic signs
ANSWER💕✔: C
Rationale A: Incorrect – Positive signs require objective proof of the fetus.
Rationale B: Incorrect – Probable signs are objective findings noted by the examiner (e.g., uterine
changes).
Rationale C: Correct – Presumptive signs are subjective changes felt by the client and have many
non‑pregnancy causes.
Rationale D: Incorrect – "Diagnostic signs" is not a pregnancy classification category.
The nurse prepares a client for a first‑trimester abdominal ultrasound. Which instruction is correct?
A. "You must be NPO after midnight."
B. "A full bladder is necessary for optimal imaging."
C. "The gel used is sterile and cold."
D. "You will feel strong cramping during the test."
ANSWER💕✔: B
Rationale A: Incorrect – Fasting is not required for obstetric ultrasound.
Rationale B: Correct – A full bladder lifts the bowel and provides an acoustic window for optimal imaging
in early pregnancy.
Rationale C: Incorrect – The gel is not sterile and is warmed for comfort.
Rationale D: Incorrect – Ultrasound is painless; strong cramping is not expected.
A client's last menstrual period began April 10. Using Nägele's rule, the estimated date of delivery is:
A. January 17
B. January 3
C. April 17
D. July 17
ANSWER💕✔: A
Rationale A: Correct – Add 7 days (April 17), subtract 3 months (January), add 1 year → January 17.
Rationale B: Incorrect – This results from subtracting 7 days instead of adding.
Rationale C: Incorrect – The month was not adjusted back three months.
, Rationale D: Incorrect – Three months were added instead of subtracted.
At a prenatal visit the client is at 24 weeks gestation. The nurse expects the fundal height to measure
approximately:
A. 18–20 cm
B. 22–26 cm
C. 28–30 cm
D. 32–34 cm
ANSWER💕✔: B
Rationale A: Incorrect – This corresponds to an earlier gestation (size less than dates).
Rationale B: Correct – From 20 weeks on, fundal height in cm roughly equals weeks ±2 cm (24 ±2).
Rationale C: Incorrect – This measurement suggests dates ahead or polyhydramnios.
Rationale D: Incorrect – This equals a near‑term measurement, not 24 weeks.
Which action is a PRIORITY nursing action at each prenatal visit to ensure fetal well‑being?
A. Auscultating the fetal heart rate
B. Measuring maternal weight
C. Testing urine for glucose
D. Assessing maternal blood pressure
ANSWER💕✔: A
Rationale A: Correct – Auscultating the FHR is a priority to directly assess fetal well‑being.
Rationale B: Incorrect – Weight tracks maternal nutrition/fluid but is not the fetal priority.
Rationale C: Incorrect – Urine glucose screens for diabetes, not immediate fetal status.
Rationale D: Incorrect – BP monitors maternal hypertension risk but not direct fetal well‑being.
The fetal heart rate can first be auscultated with a Doppler device at approximately:
A. 4–6 weeks
B. 10–12 weeks
C. 20–22 weeks
D. 28–30 weeks
ANSWER💕✔: B
Rationale A: Incorrect – The heart is not detectable by Doppler at 4–6 weeks.
Bank NGN 2026
Full Practice Exam ANSWER💕✔ + Rationale for
Every Option
Section 1: Signs of Pregnancy, Confirmation Tests, and Prenatal Assessment
The nurse is assessing a client who believes she is pregnant. Which finding is documented as a POSITIVE
sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Chadwick's sign
C. Fetal movement palpated by the examiner
D. Positive urine hCG test
ANSWER💕✔: C
Rationale A: Incorrect – Amenorrhea is a presumptive (subjective) sign with many other causes.
Rationale B: Incorrect – Chadwick's sign is a probable sign; cervix cyanosis can occur from other pelvic
congestion.
Rationale C: Correct – Positive signs are direct proof of the fetus: palpated fetal movement, fetal heart
tones, and ultrasound visualization.
Rationale D: Incorrect – A positive hCG test indicates the hormone only; it is a probable, not physical,
sign.
A first‑time client asks when she will first feel the baby move. The nurse should reply that quickening is
typically felt at:
A. 8–10 weeks
B. 12–14 weeks
C. 18–20 weeks
D. 26–28 weeks
,ANSWER💕✔: C
Rationale A: Incorrect – The fetus is too small to be felt at 8–10 weeks.
Rationale B: Incorrect – Movement is rarely perceived this early except by some multiparas.
Rationale C: Correct – Quickening is normally felt around 18–20 weeks (about 20 weeks gestation).
Rationale D: Incorrect – By 26–28 weeks movement has been felt for many weeks already.
Which is the most common initial test used to confirm pregnancy?
A. Urine test for hCG
B. Blood test for estrogen
C. Blood test for progesterone
D. Test for human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS)
ANSWER💕✔: A
Rationale A: Correct – Urine hCG is the most common initial test, indicating the presence of the
hormone produced after implantation.
Rationale B: Incorrect – Estrogen levels are less common and not an initial confirmation test.
Rationale C: Incorrect – Progesterone provides only additional, not initial, pregnancy information.
Rationale D: Incorrect – hCS is not typically used for initial pregnancy confirmation.
The bluish‑purple discoloration of the cervix noted during examination is documented as:
A. Hegar's sign
B. Chadwick's sign
C. Goodell's sign
D. Ballottement
ANSWER💕✔: B
Rationale A: Incorrect – Hegar's sign is softening of the lower uterine segment.
Rationale B: Correct – Chadwick's sign is cyanosis of the cervix, a probable sign of pregnancy.
Rationale C: Incorrect – Goodell's sign is softening of the cervix itself.
Rationale D: Incorrect – Ballottement is rebound of the fetus when tapped, also probable but not
discoloration.
Amenorrhea, nausea, and fatigue reported by the client are classified as:
A. Positive signs
,B. Probable signs
C. Presumptive signs
D. Diagnostic signs
ANSWER💕✔: C
Rationale A: Incorrect – Positive signs require objective proof of the fetus.
Rationale B: Incorrect – Probable signs are objective findings noted by the examiner (e.g., uterine
changes).
Rationale C: Correct – Presumptive signs are subjective changes felt by the client and have many
non‑pregnancy causes.
Rationale D: Incorrect – "Diagnostic signs" is not a pregnancy classification category.
The nurse prepares a client for a first‑trimester abdominal ultrasound. Which instruction is correct?
A. "You must be NPO after midnight."
B. "A full bladder is necessary for optimal imaging."
C. "The gel used is sterile and cold."
D. "You will feel strong cramping during the test."
ANSWER💕✔: B
Rationale A: Incorrect – Fasting is not required for obstetric ultrasound.
Rationale B: Correct – A full bladder lifts the bowel and provides an acoustic window for optimal imaging
in early pregnancy.
Rationale C: Incorrect – The gel is not sterile and is warmed for comfort.
Rationale D: Incorrect – Ultrasound is painless; strong cramping is not expected.
A client's last menstrual period began April 10. Using Nägele's rule, the estimated date of delivery is:
A. January 17
B. January 3
C. April 17
D. July 17
ANSWER💕✔: A
Rationale A: Correct – Add 7 days (April 17), subtract 3 months (January), add 1 year → January 17.
Rationale B: Incorrect – This results from subtracting 7 days instead of adding.
Rationale C: Incorrect – The month was not adjusted back three months.
, Rationale D: Incorrect – Three months were added instead of subtracted.
At a prenatal visit the client is at 24 weeks gestation. The nurse expects the fundal height to measure
approximately:
A. 18–20 cm
B. 22–26 cm
C. 28–30 cm
D. 32–34 cm
ANSWER💕✔: B
Rationale A: Incorrect – This corresponds to an earlier gestation (size less than dates).
Rationale B: Correct – From 20 weeks on, fundal height in cm roughly equals weeks ±2 cm (24 ±2).
Rationale C: Incorrect – This measurement suggests dates ahead or polyhydramnios.
Rationale D: Incorrect – This equals a near‑term measurement, not 24 weeks.
Which action is a PRIORITY nursing action at each prenatal visit to ensure fetal well‑being?
A. Auscultating the fetal heart rate
B. Measuring maternal weight
C. Testing urine for glucose
D. Assessing maternal blood pressure
ANSWER💕✔: A
Rationale A: Correct – Auscultating the FHR is a priority to directly assess fetal well‑being.
Rationale B: Incorrect – Weight tracks maternal nutrition/fluid but is not the fetal priority.
Rationale C: Incorrect – Urine glucose screens for diabetes, not immediate fetal status.
Rationale D: Incorrect – BP monitors maternal hypertension risk but not direct fetal well‑being.
The fetal heart rate can first be auscultated with a Doppler device at approximately:
A. 4–6 weeks
B. 10–12 weeks
C. 20–22 weeks
D. 28–30 weeks
ANSWER💕✔: B
Rationale A: Incorrect – The heart is not detectable by Doppler at 4–6 weeks.
