NURS 5461 ADULT GERONTOLOGY
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Quiz 1: NURS 5461 / NURS5461 (Latest Update 2026/2027) Adult Gerontology
Management Across the Continuum of Care | Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100%
Correct - UTA 2026/2027
Graduate Adult-Gerontology Nurse Practitioner
Management Across the Continuum of Care
A+ Verified Passing Score: 80%
Edition 2026/2027 1 Mark per Question
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTIONS COVERED
1. Assessment & Diagnostic Reasoning in Adult-Gerontology
2. Management of Common Chronic Conditions
3. Acute Care & Transitions Across Settings
4. Geriatric Syndromes, Frailty & Polypharmacy
5. Continuum of Care, Ethics & Care Coordination
EXAMINATION INFORMATION
This examination assesses advanced practice competencies in adult-gerontology management
across the continuum of care. Questions emphasize analysis and evaluation of complex clinical
scenarios, diagnostic reasoning, chronic disease management, transitions, and goal-concordant
care for adolescents, adults, and older adults. Each question is worth 1 mark. A score of 80%
or higher is required to pass. Select the single best answer for each question.
SECTION 1: Assessment & Diagnostic Reasoning in Adult-Gerontology
Q1
Q1. A 78-year-old patient presents to the clinic with progressive fatigue, weight loss of 8 pounds over two months, and
new-onset constipation. The advanced practice nurse notes a hemoglobin of 10.2 g/dL and a positive fecal occult blood
test. Which diagnostic priority is most appropriate?
A. Initiate evaluation for gastrointestinal blood loss, including consideration of colonoscopy per screening and diagnostic
guidelines.
B. Reassure the patient that anemia of aging is expected and schedule routine follow-up in six months.
C. Start empiric iron supplementation without further investigation of the source of blood loss.
D. Order only a serum ferritin and defer any structural evaluation of the colon.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
New anemia with positive occult blood and constitutional symptoms in an older adult warrants evaluation for GI bleeding, including
colonoscopy when appropriate. Attributing findings solely to aging or treating empirically without source evaluation risks missing
serious pathology.
Q2
Q2. An 82-year-old patient is brought by family for evaluation of increasing forgetfulness and difficulty managing
medications. The AGNP uses a standardized cognitive screening tool. Which approach best supports accurate
assessment?
A. Rely solely on family report without direct testing of the patient.
B. Perform a validated cognitive screen (e.g., Mini-Cog or MoCA), review medications for cognitive effects, and assess
function and safety.
C. Diagnose Alzheimer disease immediately based on age alone and start a cholinesterase inhibitor.
D. Defer all cognitive testing until laboratory results for reversible causes return in several weeks.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Structured cognitive screening plus medication review and functional assessment identify impairment and potentially reversible
contributors. Age alone does not establish diagnosis, and delaying all evaluation may leave safety risks unaddressed.
Quiz 1: NURS 5461 / NURS5461 (Latest Update 2026/2027) Adult Gerontolo... Page 2
, Q3
Q3. A 67-year-old with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes reports orthostatic dizziness. Sitting blood pressure is 148/86 mm
Hg; standing is 118/70 mm Hg with reproduction of symptoms. Which assessment finding should the AGNP prioritize in
the plan?
A. Encourage rapid position changes to train the baroreceptor reflex.
B. Add a second antihypertensive agent to further lower sitting blood pressure.
C. Evaluate volume status, review antihypertensives and other agents that worsen orthostasis, and counsel on slow position
changes and safety.
D. Attribute symptoms solely to neuropathy and prescribe only a tricyclic antidepressant.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Significant orthostatic drop with symptoms requires volume and medication review and safety counseling. Adding antihypertensives or
ignoring volume/medication factors can worsen falls risk.
Q4
Q4. A 71-year-old patient reports progressive dyspnea on exertion and bilateral ankle edema. Physical examination
reveals an S3 and crackles at both bases. Which diagnostic step is most appropriate next?
A. Prescribe a loop diuretic empirically without further cardiac evaluation.
B. Reassure that edema is normal aging and recommend compression stockings alone.
C. Order only a chest radiograph and defer functional cardiac assessment.
D. Obtain natriuretic peptide level and echocardiography to evaluate for heart failure, while addressing volume status.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Clinical signs of possible heart failure warrant objective confirmation (BNP/NT-proBNP and echo) to guide therapy. Empiric diuresis
without assessment or dismissing findings as normal aging is incomplete.
Q5
Q5. An older adult with multimorbidity is evaluated for unintentional weight loss of 10% body weight in six months. Which
element of the workup is essential?
A. Perform a systematic evaluation including history, medication review, oral health, social factors, targeted labs, and
directed imaging based on red flags.
B. Assume depression is the sole cause and start an antidepressant without further evaluation.
C. Recommend high-calorie supplements only and reassess in one year.
D. Attribute weight loss exclusively to normal aging and document without intervention.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Significant unintentional weight loss requires multifactorial assessment for malignancy, medication effects, oral problems, social
isolation, and other reversible causes. Single-cause assumptions or inaction delay diagnosis.
Quiz 1: NURS 5461 / NURS5461 (Latest Update 2026/2027) Adult Gerontolo... Page 3
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Quiz 1: NURS 5461 / NURS5461 (Latest Update 2026/2027) Adult Gerontology
Management Across the Continuum of Care | Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100%
Correct - UTA 2026/2027
Graduate Adult-Gerontology Nurse Practitioner
Management Across the Continuum of Care
A+ Verified Passing Score: 80%
Edition 2026/2027 1 Mark per Question
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTIONS COVERED
1. Assessment & Diagnostic Reasoning in Adult-Gerontology
2. Management of Common Chronic Conditions
3. Acute Care & Transitions Across Settings
4. Geriatric Syndromes, Frailty & Polypharmacy
5. Continuum of Care, Ethics & Care Coordination
EXAMINATION INFORMATION
This examination assesses advanced practice competencies in adult-gerontology management
across the continuum of care. Questions emphasize analysis and evaluation of complex clinical
scenarios, diagnostic reasoning, chronic disease management, transitions, and goal-concordant
care for adolescents, adults, and older adults. Each question is worth 1 mark. A score of 80%
or higher is required to pass. Select the single best answer for each question.
SECTION 1: Assessment & Diagnostic Reasoning in Adult-Gerontology
Q1
Q1. A 78-year-old patient presents to the clinic with progressive fatigue, weight loss of 8 pounds over two months, and
new-onset constipation. The advanced practice nurse notes a hemoglobin of 10.2 g/dL and a positive fecal occult blood
test. Which diagnostic priority is most appropriate?
A. Initiate evaluation for gastrointestinal blood loss, including consideration of colonoscopy per screening and diagnostic
guidelines.
B. Reassure the patient that anemia of aging is expected and schedule routine follow-up in six months.
C. Start empiric iron supplementation without further investigation of the source of blood loss.
D. Order only a serum ferritin and defer any structural evaluation of the colon.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
New anemia with positive occult blood and constitutional symptoms in an older adult warrants evaluation for GI bleeding, including
colonoscopy when appropriate. Attributing findings solely to aging or treating empirically without source evaluation risks missing
serious pathology.
Q2
Q2. An 82-year-old patient is brought by family for evaluation of increasing forgetfulness and difficulty managing
medications. The AGNP uses a standardized cognitive screening tool. Which approach best supports accurate
assessment?
A. Rely solely on family report without direct testing of the patient.
B. Perform a validated cognitive screen (e.g., Mini-Cog or MoCA), review medications for cognitive effects, and assess
function and safety.
C. Diagnose Alzheimer disease immediately based on age alone and start a cholinesterase inhibitor.
D. Defer all cognitive testing until laboratory results for reversible causes return in several weeks.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Structured cognitive screening plus medication review and functional assessment identify impairment and potentially reversible
contributors. Age alone does not establish diagnosis, and delaying all evaluation may leave safety risks unaddressed.
Quiz 1: NURS 5461 / NURS5461 (Latest Update 2026/2027) Adult Gerontolo... Page 2
, Q3
Q3. A 67-year-old with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes reports orthostatic dizziness. Sitting blood pressure is 148/86 mm
Hg; standing is 118/70 mm Hg with reproduction of symptoms. Which assessment finding should the AGNP prioritize in
the plan?
A. Encourage rapid position changes to train the baroreceptor reflex.
B. Add a second antihypertensive agent to further lower sitting blood pressure.
C. Evaluate volume status, review antihypertensives and other agents that worsen orthostasis, and counsel on slow position
changes and safety.
D. Attribute symptoms solely to neuropathy and prescribe only a tricyclic antidepressant.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Significant orthostatic drop with symptoms requires volume and medication review and safety counseling. Adding antihypertensives or
ignoring volume/medication factors can worsen falls risk.
Q4
Q4. A 71-year-old patient reports progressive dyspnea on exertion and bilateral ankle edema. Physical examination
reveals an S3 and crackles at both bases. Which diagnostic step is most appropriate next?
A. Prescribe a loop diuretic empirically without further cardiac evaluation.
B. Reassure that edema is normal aging and recommend compression stockings alone.
C. Order only a chest radiograph and defer functional cardiac assessment.
D. Obtain natriuretic peptide level and echocardiography to evaluate for heart failure, while addressing volume status.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Clinical signs of possible heart failure warrant objective confirmation (BNP/NT-proBNP and echo) to guide therapy. Empiric diuresis
without assessment or dismissing findings as normal aging is incomplete.
Q5
Q5. An older adult with multimorbidity is evaluated for unintentional weight loss of 10% body weight in six months. Which
element of the workup is essential?
A. Perform a systematic evaluation including history, medication review, oral health, social factors, targeted labs, and
directed imaging based on red flags.
B. Assume depression is the sole cause and start an antidepressant without further evaluation.
C. Recommend high-calorie supplements only and reassess in one year.
D. Attribute weight loss exclusively to normal aging and document without intervention.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Significant unintentional weight loss requires multifactorial assessment for malignancy, medication effects, oral problems, social
isolation, and other reversible causes. Single-cause assumptions or inaction delay diagnosis.
Quiz 1: NURS 5461 / NURS5461 (Latest Update 2026/2027) Adult Gerontolo... Page 3
