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ATI NCLEX Readiness Assessment Practice Exam
Preparation With Complete Questions And Correct
Answers With Rationales Already Graded A+ Brand
New Version!!
1. A nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes
mellitus. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a
need for further teaching regarding insulin therapy?
A) I will rotate my injection sites to prevent lipohypertrophy.
B) I can store my unopened insulin vials in the refrigerator.
C) I should draw up the NPH insulin first, then the regular insulin.
D) I need to check my blood glucose level before each meal.
Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is C. The client should draw up the
regular (clear) insulin first, then the NPH (cloudy) insulin to avoid
contaminating the regular insulin with the longer-acting NPH. This is a
standard principle of insulin administration to ensure the correct dose
and action profile. The other statements are correct. Rotating injection
sites prevents lipohypertrophy and lipoatrophy. Unopened vials are
stored in the refrigerator. Checking blood glucose before meals is an
essential part of diabetes self-management.
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2. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days postoperative following an
abdominal hysterectomy. Which of the following findings should the
nurse report to the provider?
A) Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing
B) Bowel sounds in all four quadrants
C) Urinary output of 30 mL per hour
D) Temperature of 38.4°C (101.1°F)
Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is D. A temperature of 38.4°C on the
second postoperative day is elevated and could indicate an infection,
such as a surgical site infection, pneumonia, or a urinary tract infection.
This finding should be promptly reported. Serosanguineous drainage is
an expected finding in the immediate postoperative period. Bowel
sounds returning are a positive sign. A urinary output of 30 mL/hr is at
the lower limit of normal but is not as critical a finding as a fever.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which of the
following laboratory values should the nurse monitor most closely?
A) Serum potassium
B) Serum sodium
C) Serum calcium
D) Serum magnesium
Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is A. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that
promotes the excretion of potassium, potentially leading to
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hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can increase the risk of cardiac
dysrhythmias, especially in clients taking digitalis preparations, which
may be prescribed for heart failure. While sodium, calcium, and
magnesium levels can also be affected by diuretics, potassium is the
most critical and common electrolyte imbalance associated with
furosemide.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements indicates
the client understands the teaching?
A) I can take ibuprofen for headaches if I need to.
B) I should increase my intake of green leafy vegetables.
C) I will report any bleeding from my gums or nose.
D) I will need to have my blood drawn once a year to check my levels.
Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is C. Reporting any signs of bleeding,
such as from the gums or nose, is essential for a client taking warfarin,
an anticoagulant. This indicates a potential for excessive
anticoagulation and requires immediate evaluation. Ibuprofen and
other NSAIDs can increase the risk of bleeding and should be avoided.
Green leafy vegetables, which are high in vitamin K, can antagonize the
effects of warfarin and should be eaten consistently, not increased. INR
levels need to be monitored frequently, often weekly to monthly, not
just annually.
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5. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing an acute asthma
exacerbation. Which of the following medications should the nurse
administer first?
A) Montelukast
B) Albuterol
C) Fluticasone
D) Theophylline
Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2
agonist (SABA) that acts as a bronchodilator and is the first-line
medication for acute asthma exacerbations. It provides rapid relief of
bronchospasm. Montelukast is a leukotriene modifier used for long-
term control. Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid used for long-term
control. Theophylline is a methylxanthine bronchodilator, but it is not
the first-line agent for an acute attack due to its narrow therapeutic
index and slower onset.
6. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 hour postpartum. The nurse
notes a large amount of lochia rubra and a boggy fundus. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Administer oxytocin as prescribed.
B) Massage the uterine fundus.
C) Assess the client's vital signs.
D) Increase the rate of the IV infusion.
Answer: B
ATI NCLEX Readiness Assessment Practice Exam
Preparation With Complete Questions And Correct
Answers With Rationales Already Graded A+ Brand
New Version!!
1. A nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes
mellitus. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a
need for further teaching regarding insulin therapy?
A) I will rotate my injection sites to prevent lipohypertrophy.
B) I can store my unopened insulin vials in the refrigerator.
C) I should draw up the NPH insulin first, then the regular insulin.
D) I need to check my blood glucose level before each meal.
Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is C. The client should draw up the
regular (clear) insulin first, then the NPH (cloudy) insulin to avoid
contaminating the regular insulin with the longer-acting NPH. This is a
standard principle of insulin administration to ensure the correct dose
and action profile. The other statements are correct. Rotating injection
sites prevents lipohypertrophy and lipoatrophy. Unopened vials are
stored in the refrigerator. Checking blood glucose before meals is an
essential part of diabetes self-management.
,2|Page
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days postoperative following an
abdominal hysterectomy. Which of the following findings should the
nurse report to the provider?
A) Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing
B) Bowel sounds in all four quadrants
C) Urinary output of 30 mL per hour
D) Temperature of 38.4°C (101.1°F)
Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is D. A temperature of 38.4°C on the
second postoperative day is elevated and could indicate an infection,
such as a surgical site infection, pneumonia, or a urinary tract infection.
This finding should be promptly reported. Serosanguineous drainage is
an expected finding in the immediate postoperative period. Bowel
sounds returning are a positive sign. A urinary output of 30 mL/hr is at
the lower limit of normal but is not as critical a finding as a fever.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which of the
following laboratory values should the nurse monitor most closely?
A) Serum potassium
B) Serum sodium
C) Serum calcium
D) Serum magnesium
Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is A. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that
promotes the excretion of potassium, potentially leading to
,3|Page
hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can increase the risk of cardiac
dysrhythmias, especially in clients taking digitalis preparations, which
may be prescribed for heart failure. While sodium, calcium, and
magnesium levels can also be affected by diuretics, potassium is the
most critical and common electrolyte imbalance associated with
furosemide.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements indicates
the client understands the teaching?
A) I can take ibuprofen for headaches if I need to.
B) I should increase my intake of green leafy vegetables.
C) I will report any bleeding from my gums or nose.
D) I will need to have my blood drawn once a year to check my levels.
Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is C. Reporting any signs of bleeding,
such as from the gums or nose, is essential for a client taking warfarin,
an anticoagulant. This indicates a potential for excessive
anticoagulation and requires immediate evaluation. Ibuprofen and
other NSAIDs can increase the risk of bleeding and should be avoided.
Green leafy vegetables, which are high in vitamin K, can antagonize the
effects of warfarin and should be eaten consistently, not increased. INR
levels need to be monitored frequently, often weekly to monthly, not
just annually.
, 4|Page
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing an acute asthma
exacerbation. Which of the following medications should the nurse
administer first?
A) Montelukast
B) Albuterol
C) Fluticasone
D) Theophylline
Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2
agonist (SABA) that acts as a bronchodilator and is the first-line
medication for acute asthma exacerbations. It provides rapid relief of
bronchospasm. Montelukast is a leukotriene modifier used for long-
term control. Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid used for long-term
control. Theophylline is a methylxanthine bronchodilator, but it is not
the first-line agent for an acute attack due to its narrow therapeutic
index and slower onset.
6. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 hour postpartum. The nurse
notes a large amount of lochia rubra and a boggy fundus. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Administer oxytocin as prescribed.
B) Massage the uterine fundus.
C) Assess the client's vital signs.
D) Increase the rate of the IV infusion.
Answer: B
