Security Forces Block 2
SECURITY FORCES BLOCK 2 | COMPLETE EXAM 2026/2027 | REAL
QUESTIONS + DETAILED ANSWERS - LATEST VERSION - TOP RATED
1. What is the primary purpose of the Use of Force continuum used by
Security Forces?
A. To justify lethal force in every encounter
B. To provide a graduated, reasonable response to a subject's level of
resistance
C. To eliminate the need for verbal commands
D. To replace the need for an AF Form 3226
ANSWER : B
Rationale: The Use of Force continuum exists to guide Defenders toward a
response that is reasonable and proportional to the resistance encountered,
escalating or de-escalating as the situation changes. It is not a justification for
automatic lethal force, does not remove the need for verbal commands, and
has no relationship to specific AF forms.
2. Which factor is NOT one of the standard justifications for use of force?
A. Self-defense
B. Defense of others
C. Personal convenience
D. Prevention of a serious crime
ANSWER : C
Rationale: Force must be justified by legitimate factors such as self-defense,
defense of others, or preventing a serious offense. Personal convenience is
never a lawful basis for using force.
3. The 'reasonableness' standard for use of force is judged from the
perspective of:
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, Security Forces Block 2
A. A reasonable Defender on scene at the time, given the totality of
circumstances
B. The subject involved in the incident
C. A judge reviewing the case months later with full knowledge
D. The unit commander only
ANSWER : A
Rationale: Reasonableness is evaluated based on what a reasonable Defender
would do given the information available in the moment, not with the benefit
of hindsight, and not solely from the subject's or a later reviewer's perspective.
4. Which of the following best defines 'objectively reasonable force'?
A. The minimum force needed regardless of threat
B. The force a reasonable Defender would use given the same facts and
circumstances
C. Any force that stops the threat immediately
D. Force that matches the subject's exact level of aggression
ANSWER : B
Rationale: Objectively reasonable force is measured against what another
reasonable Defender, possessing the same information, would have done in
that situation — not a rigid minimum or an exact mirror of the subject's
actions.
5. A subject who is verbally noncompliant but not physically resisting would
typically fall under which level of resistance?
A. Passive resistance
B. Active aggression
C. Deadly force resistance
D. Assaultive behavior
ANSWER : A
Rationale: Verbal refusal without physical action is generally classified as
passive resistance, which does not yet involve physical resistance to control.
6. Active resistance is best described as:
A. Physical actions to defeat a Defender's attempt at control without
attacking
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, Security Forces Block 2
B. A subject who deliberately assaults a Defender
C. A subject who flees in a vehicle only
D. A subject who complies after one verbal command
ANSWER : B
Rationale: Wait — reconsider: Active resistance means the subject physically
works against control efforts (e.g., pulling away, stiffening, bracing) without
striking the Defender. This is distinct from assaultive behavior, which involves
attacking.
7. Which use-of-force option is generally considered a 'less-lethal' control
technique?
A. M4 carbine fired at center mass
B. OC (pepper) spray
C. M203 grenade launcher
D. Deadly force with the M9
ANSWER : B
Rationale: OC spray is a recognized less-lethal option intended to gain
compliance without causing death or serious bodily harm, unlike the listed
firearms/lethal options.
8. Deadly force is authorized when a Defender reasonably believes:
A. The subject is simply uncooperative
B. There is an imminent threat of death or serious bodily harm to self or
others
C. The subject has committed a minor infraction
D. A supervisor has not yet arrived on scene
ANSWER : B
Rationale: Deadly force is reserved for situations involving an imminent,
credible threat of death or serious bodily harm — not for mere
uncooperativeness or minor offenses.
9. Which statement about warning shots is correct under Air Force policy?
A. Warning shots are always authorized before deadly force
B. Warning shots are generally prohibited due to safety and legal
concerns
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, Security Forces Block 2
C. Warning shots replace the need for verbal commands
D. Warning shots are mandatory in all deadly force situations
ANSWER : B
Rationale: Air Force policy generally prohibits warning shots because of the
uncontrolled risk to bystanders and the false impression they can create about
the shooter's intent; they are not a required precursor to deadly force.
10. The concept of 'totality of circumstances' in a use-of-force review means:
A. Only the final action taken is reviewed
B. All facts and circumstances known to the Defender at the time are
considered together
C. Only the subject's criminal history is considered
D. Only physical injuries are evaluated
ANSWER : B
Rationale: Reviewers look at the complete picture — the subject's actions,
environment, available information, and Defender's perceptions — rather than
isolating a single moment or fact.
11. Which is an example of 'assaultive behavior' under the resistance
continuum?
A. A subject who stands still and refuses to speak
B. A subject who strikes a Defender with a closed fist
C. A subject who walks away slowly
D. A subject who sits down and goes limp
ANSWER : B
Rationale: Striking a Defender constitutes an active attack, which is classified
as assaultive behavior — a higher level than passive or merely active (non-
attacking) resistance.
12. A Defender's use of force must be documented on which form after a
significant incident?
A. AF Form 1297
B. AF Form 3226, Use of Force Report
C. AF Form 40A
D. AF Form 522
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SECURITY FORCES BLOCK 2 | COMPLETE EXAM 2026/2027 | REAL
QUESTIONS + DETAILED ANSWERS - LATEST VERSION - TOP RATED
1. What is the primary purpose of the Use of Force continuum used by
Security Forces?
A. To justify lethal force in every encounter
B. To provide a graduated, reasonable response to a subject's level of
resistance
C. To eliminate the need for verbal commands
D. To replace the need for an AF Form 3226
ANSWER : B
Rationale: The Use of Force continuum exists to guide Defenders toward a
response that is reasonable and proportional to the resistance encountered,
escalating or de-escalating as the situation changes. It is not a justification for
automatic lethal force, does not remove the need for verbal commands, and
has no relationship to specific AF forms.
2. Which factor is NOT one of the standard justifications for use of force?
A. Self-defense
B. Defense of others
C. Personal convenience
D. Prevention of a serious crime
ANSWER : C
Rationale: Force must be justified by legitimate factors such as self-defense,
defense of others, or preventing a serious offense. Personal convenience is
never a lawful basis for using force.
3. The 'reasonableness' standard for use of force is judged from the
perspective of:
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, Security Forces Block 2
A. A reasonable Defender on scene at the time, given the totality of
circumstances
B. The subject involved in the incident
C. A judge reviewing the case months later with full knowledge
D. The unit commander only
ANSWER : A
Rationale: Reasonableness is evaluated based on what a reasonable Defender
would do given the information available in the moment, not with the benefit
of hindsight, and not solely from the subject's or a later reviewer's perspective.
4. Which of the following best defines 'objectively reasonable force'?
A. The minimum force needed regardless of threat
B. The force a reasonable Defender would use given the same facts and
circumstances
C. Any force that stops the threat immediately
D. Force that matches the subject's exact level of aggression
ANSWER : B
Rationale: Objectively reasonable force is measured against what another
reasonable Defender, possessing the same information, would have done in
that situation — not a rigid minimum or an exact mirror of the subject's
actions.
5. A subject who is verbally noncompliant but not physically resisting would
typically fall under which level of resistance?
A. Passive resistance
B. Active aggression
C. Deadly force resistance
D. Assaultive behavior
ANSWER : A
Rationale: Verbal refusal without physical action is generally classified as
passive resistance, which does not yet involve physical resistance to control.
6. Active resistance is best described as:
A. Physical actions to defeat a Defender's attempt at control without
attacking
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, Security Forces Block 2
B. A subject who deliberately assaults a Defender
C. A subject who flees in a vehicle only
D. A subject who complies after one verbal command
ANSWER : B
Rationale: Wait — reconsider: Active resistance means the subject physically
works against control efforts (e.g., pulling away, stiffening, bracing) without
striking the Defender. This is distinct from assaultive behavior, which involves
attacking.
7. Which use-of-force option is generally considered a 'less-lethal' control
technique?
A. M4 carbine fired at center mass
B. OC (pepper) spray
C. M203 grenade launcher
D. Deadly force with the M9
ANSWER : B
Rationale: OC spray is a recognized less-lethal option intended to gain
compliance without causing death or serious bodily harm, unlike the listed
firearms/lethal options.
8. Deadly force is authorized when a Defender reasonably believes:
A. The subject is simply uncooperative
B. There is an imminent threat of death or serious bodily harm to self or
others
C. The subject has committed a minor infraction
D. A supervisor has not yet arrived on scene
ANSWER : B
Rationale: Deadly force is reserved for situations involving an imminent,
credible threat of death or serious bodily harm — not for mere
uncooperativeness or minor offenses.
9. Which statement about warning shots is correct under Air Force policy?
A. Warning shots are always authorized before deadly force
B. Warning shots are generally prohibited due to safety and legal
concerns
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, Security Forces Block 2
C. Warning shots replace the need for verbal commands
D. Warning shots are mandatory in all deadly force situations
ANSWER : B
Rationale: Air Force policy generally prohibits warning shots because of the
uncontrolled risk to bystanders and the false impression they can create about
the shooter's intent; they are not a required precursor to deadly force.
10. The concept of 'totality of circumstances' in a use-of-force review means:
A. Only the final action taken is reviewed
B. All facts and circumstances known to the Defender at the time are
considered together
C. Only the subject's criminal history is considered
D. Only physical injuries are evaluated
ANSWER : B
Rationale: Reviewers look at the complete picture — the subject's actions,
environment, available information, and Defender's perceptions — rather than
isolating a single moment or fact.
11. Which is an example of 'assaultive behavior' under the resistance
continuum?
A. A subject who stands still and refuses to speak
B. A subject who strikes a Defender with a closed fist
C. A subject who walks away slowly
D. A subject who sits down and goes limp
ANSWER : B
Rationale: Striking a Defender constitutes an active attack, which is classified
as assaultive behavior — a higher level than passive or merely active (non-
attacking) resistance.
12. A Defender's use of force must be documented on which form after a
significant incident?
A. AF Form 1297
B. AF Form 3226, Use of Force Report
C. AF Form 40A
D. AF Form 522
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