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RN VATI Adult Medical Surgical Assessment Exam Questions with Correct Verified Answers (Latest 2026/2027) – Guaranteed Pass | Complete Med-Surg Nursing

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RN VATI Adult Medical Surgical Assessment Exam Questions with Correct Verified Answers (Latest 2026/2027) – Guaranteed Pass | Complete Med-Surg Nursing

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RN VATI Adult Medical Surgical Assessment
Exam Questions with Correct Verified
Answers (Latest 2026/2027) – Guaranteed
Pass | Complete Med-Surg Nursing

Question 1
A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following
findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of left-sided heart failure?

A) Dependent edema in the lower extremities
B) Frothy sputum
C) Jugular vein distention
D) Hepatomegaly

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Pink-tinged frothy sputum indicates pulmonary edema, a key manifestation
of left-sided heart failure due to pulmonary congestion . Left-sided failure causes
backup of blood into the pulmonary circulation, leading to crackles, dyspnea, and frothy
sputum. Dependent edema, JVD, and hepatomegaly are signs of right-sided heart
failure .



Question 2
A nurse is assessing a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following
findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of right-sided heart failure?

A) S3 gallop
B) Weak peripheral pulses
C) Increased abdominal girth
D) Wheezing

Correct Answer: C

,Rationale: Increased abdominal girth is an expected finding with right-sided heart
failure due to systemic congestion and an enlarged liver and spleen . Systemic
congestion leads to fluid retention and increased pressure in the venous system,
manifesting as edema in the lower extremities and ascites. S3 gallop, weak peripheral
pulses, and wheezing are associated with left-sided heart failure due to pulmonary
congestion and decreased cardiac output .



Question 3
A client with acute decompensated heart failure has a blood pressure of 86/40 mmHg
and heart rate of 134/min. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?

A) Digoxin
B) Norepinephrine
C) Furosemide
D) Metoprolol

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The client is in cardiogenic shock with hypotension and tachycardia.
Norepinephrine is a vasopressor indicated for severe hypotension to maintain perfusion
to vital organs. Furosemide would further lower blood pressure. Metoprolol could
worsen hypotension and bradycardia. Digoxin would not address the immediate
hemodynamic instability.



Question 4
The nurse receives all of the following STAT orders for Mr. Palmer. Which one should the
nurse question?

A) Oxygen per nasal cannula at 4 L/min
B) Enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg subcutaneously
C) Troponin level
D) Computed tomography (CT) angiogram

Correct Answer: B

,Rationale: The nurse should question the order for Lovenox because the patient is
receiving a heparin drip . Concurrent use of heparin and enoxaparin increases the risk of
bleeding and is not indicated . The other orders are appropriate for a patient with
suspected acute coronary syndrome.


A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a prescription for clopidogrel
following a thrombotic stroke. Which information should the nurse include?

A) "The medication dissolves clots"
B) "The medication prevents clot formation"
C) "The medication should be taken with food"
D) "The medication reduces blood pressure"

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that prevents clot formation by
inhibiting platelet aggregation . It does not dissolve existing clots (thrombolytics do
that). It can be taken with or without food. It does not directly affect blood pressure.



Question 6
A patient with acute decompensated heart failure is receiving IV furosemide. Which
assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?

A) Increased heart rate
B) Decreased blood pressure
C) Urine output of 250 mL over 2 hours
D) Respiratory rate decreasing from 28 to 20 breaths/min

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In ADHF, the therapeutic goal of furosemide is to reduce fluid volume and
improve pulmonary congestion. A decreasing respiratory rate indicates improvement in
pulmonary edema. While increased urine output is desired, the clinical improvement in
respiratory status is the best indicator of therapeutic effect.

, Question 7
A nurse is assessing a client following a cardiac catheterization via the femoral artery.
Which finding requires immediate notification of the provider?

A) Pain at the insertion site
B) Petechiae on the leg
C) Cool, pale, pulseless extremity below the insertion site
D) A small hematoma at the insertion site

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A cool, pale, pulseless extremity below the insertion site indicates possible
arterial occlusion, thrombus, or compromised blood flow. This is a medical emergency
requiring immediate intervention to prevent tissue necrosis.



Question 8
A client is prescribed amiodarone for a dysrhythmia. The nurse should monitor for which
adverse effect?

A) Pulmonary toxicity
B) Hepatotoxicity
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) All of the above

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Amiodarone can cause pulmonary toxicity (fibrosis), hepatotoxicity, and
thyroid dysfunction (hyper- or hypothyroidism). Regular monitoring of pulmonary
function, liver enzymes, and thyroid function is required.



Question 9
A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed apixaban. Which patient education is most
important?

A) "Monitor your INR weekly."
B) "Do not stop this medication abruptly."

Libro relacionado
 image
Susan A. Sandstrom, Sharon L. Lewis, Margaret McLean Heitkemper, RN Ph.D., Shannon Ruff Dirksen Study Guide for Medical-Surgical Nursing
Editorial: 2013 ISBN: 9780323091473 Edición: Desconocido

Información del documento

Subido en
7 de agosto de 2026
Número de páginas
43
Escrito en
2026/2027
Tipo
Examen
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