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HESI RN EXIT EXAM / ACTUAL RN HESI FUNDAMENTALS
EXIT EXAM ACCURATE Exam 2026-2027 BANK QUESTIONS
WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS
WILL COME FROM HERE (100% Latest Already Graded A+
Question 1
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving oxygen
at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. Which assessment finding
indicates that the oxygen therapy is effective?
A. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
B. Pulse oximetry reading of 94 percent
C. Client reports feeling restless
D. Arterial blood gas showing PaCO2 of 55 mm Hg
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 94 percent indicates adequate
oxygenation and is a target for clients with COPD. A respiratory rate of
24 is slightly elevated, restlessness may indicate hypoxia, and a PaCO2
of 55 mm Hg indicates hypercapnia, which is not a sign of effective
therapy. The goal is to maintain oxygen saturation between 88 and 92
percent in COPD clients to avoid suppressing the hypoxic drive, but 94
percent is generally acceptable in non-COPD or stable COPD if no
adverse effects occur.
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Question 2
A postoperative client reports sudden chest pain and shortness of
breath. The nurse notes tachycardia and hypotension. Which action
should the nurse take first?
A. Administer prescribed analgesic
B. Place the client in a high Fowler position
C. Prepare for endotracheal intubation
D. Apply a nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of a possible pulmonary
embolism. The priority is to place the client in a high Fowler position to
facilitate breathing and oxygenation. While oxygen administration is
important, positioning is the immediate first step to maximize lung
expansion and reduce venous return from the lower extremities.
Analgesics and intubation are later interventions based on further
assessment.
Question 3
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which laboratory
value should the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Serum sodium
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B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum glucose
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes excretion of
potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium is
essential to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. While
sodium, calcium, and glucose may be affected, potassium imbalance is
the most significant and common adverse effect.
Question 4
The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube attached to low
intermittent suction. Which assessment finding indicates that the tube
is functioning properly?
A. The client reports nausea
B. The drainage is bright red
C. The pH of gastric aspirate is 3.0
D. The abdominal girth has increased
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A gastric aspirate pH of 3.0 or less confirms correct
placement in the stomach. Nausea and increased abdominal girth may
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indicate tube malfunction or obstruction, and bright red drainage
indicates active bleeding. Proper functioning is verified by aspirate
characteristics and pH.
Question 5
A client receiving a blood transfusion develops chills, fever, and flank
pain. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Slow the infusion rate
B. Stop the transfusion
C. Administer antihistamine
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: These symptoms suggest an acute hemolytic transfusion
reaction. The first action is to stop the transfusion immediately to
prevent further complications. After stopping, the nurse should
maintain IV access with normal saline, notify the healthcare provider,
and prepare to administer prescribed medications.
Question 6
The nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis.
Which respiratory pattern is expected?
HESI RN EXIT EXAM / ACTUAL RN HESI FUNDAMENTALS
EXIT EXAM ACCURATE Exam 2026-2027 BANK QUESTIONS
WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS
WILL COME FROM HERE (100% Latest Already Graded A+
Question 1
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving oxygen
at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. Which assessment finding
indicates that the oxygen therapy is effective?
A. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
B. Pulse oximetry reading of 94 percent
C. Client reports feeling restless
D. Arterial blood gas showing PaCO2 of 55 mm Hg
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 94 percent indicates adequate
oxygenation and is a target for clients with COPD. A respiratory rate of
24 is slightly elevated, restlessness may indicate hypoxia, and a PaCO2
of 55 mm Hg indicates hypercapnia, which is not a sign of effective
therapy. The goal is to maintain oxygen saturation between 88 and 92
percent in COPD clients to avoid suppressing the hypoxic drive, but 94
percent is generally acceptable in non-COPD or stable COPD if no
adverse effects occur.
,2|Page
Question 2
A postoperative client reports sudden chest pain and shortness of
breath. The nurse notes tachycardia and hypotension. Which action
should the nurse take first?
A. Administer prescribed analgesic
B. Place the client in a high Fowler position
C. Prepare for endotracheal intubation
D. Apply a nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of a possible pulmonary
embolism. The priority is to place the client in a high Fowler position to
facilitate breathing and oxygenation. While oxygen administration is
important, positioning is the immediate first step to maximize lung
expansion and reduce venous return from the lower extremities.
Analgesics and intubation are later interventions based on further
assessment.
Question 3
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which laboratory
value should the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Serum sodium
,3|Page
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum glucose
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes excretion of
potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium is
essential to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. While
sodium, calcium, and glucose may be affected, potassium imbalance is
the most significant and common adverse effect.
Question 4
The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube attached to low
intermittent suction. Which assessment finding indicates that the tube
is functioning properly?
A. The client reports nausea
B. The drainage is bright red
C. The pH of gastric aspirate is 3.0
D. The abdominal girth has increased
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A gastric aspirate pH of 3.0 or less confirms correct
placement in the stomach. Nausea and increased abdominal girth may
, 4|Page
indicate tube malfunction or obstruction, and bright red drainage
indicates active bleeding. Proper functioning is verified by aspirate
characteristics and pH.
Question 5
A client receiving a blood transfusion develops chills, fever, and flank
pain. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Slow the infusion rate
B. Stop the transfusion
C. Administer antihistamine
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: These symptoms suggest an acute hemolytic transfusion
reaction. The first action is to stop the transfusion immediately to
prevent further complications. After stopping, the nurse should
maintain IV access with normal saline, notify the healthcare provider,
and prepare to administer prescribed medications.
Question 6
The nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis.
Which respiratory pattern is expected?
