1|Page
CBMT Exam 2026-2027 BANK QUESTIONS WITH
DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS
WILL COME FROM HERE (100% Latest Already Graded
A+
QUESTION 1
A 45-year-old male presents with progressive exertional dyspnea and a
systolic ejection murmur that increases with Valsalva maneuver.
Echocardiography reveals asymmetrical septal hypertrophy with a ratio
of 1.6:1 compared to the posterior wall. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?
A) Aortic stenosis
B) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C) Mitral valve prolapse
D) Dilated cardiomyopathy
ANSWER: B) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Explanation: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized by
asymmetrical septal hypertrophy, typically with a septal-to-posterior
wall thickness ratio greater than 1.3:1. The systolic ejection murmur
increases with Valsalva maneuver due to decreased preload and
increased left ventricular outflow tract obstruction. Aortic stenosis
,2|Page
typically presents with a murmur that decreases with Valsalva. Mitral
valve prolapse produces a mid-systolic click and late systolic murmur.
Dilated cardiomyopathy presents with global hypokinesis and dilated
ventricles without the characteristic asymmetric septal hypertrophy.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following laboratory findings is most consistent with a
diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion
(SIADH)?
A) Serum sodium 128 mEq/L, serum osmolality 260 mOsm/kg, urine
osmolality 600 mOsm/kg
B) Serum sodium 135 mEq/L, serum osmolality 290 mOsm/kg, urine
osmolality 100 mOsm/kg
C) Serum sodium 118 mEq/L, serum osmolality 240 mOsm/kg, urine
osmolality 80 mOsm/kg
D) Serum sodium 142 mEq/L, serum osmolality 295 mOsm/kg, urine
osmolality 400 mOsm/kg
ANSWER: A) Serum sodium 128 mEq/L, serum osmolality 260 mOsm/kg,
urine osmolality 600 mOsm/kg
Explanation: SIADH is characterized by hyponatremia (serum sodium
less than 135 mEq/L), low serum osmolality (less than 275 mOsm/kg),
and inappropriately concentrated urine (urine osmolality greater than
100 mOsm/kg). The combination of low serum osmolality with high
urine osmolality indicates impaired free water excretion. Option A
demonstrates all these classic features. Option B shows normal sodium
and osmolality. Option C shows more severe hyponatremia but
,3|Page
inappropriately dilute urine, more consistent with polydipsia. Option D
shows normal serum sodium and osmolality.
QUESTION 3
A 28-year-old pregnant female at 32 weeks gestation presents with
new-onset hypertension (blood pressure 152/96 mmHg) and
proteinuria (3.2 grams per 24 hours). She reports right upper quadrant
pain and headache. Laboratory evaluation reveals platelet count of
78,000/microliter and elevated liver transaminases. What is the most
appropriate definitive management?
A) Magnesium sulfate administration
B) Antihypertensive therapy with labetalol
C) Delivery of the fetus
D) Corticosteroid administration for fetal lung maturity
ANSWER: C) Delivery of the fetus
Explanation: This patient presents with preeclampsia with severe
features as evidenced by blood pressure greater than 160/110 (here
152/96 is approaching but combined with other severe features),
proteinuria, right upper quadrant pain (suggestive of hepatic
involvement), headache, thrombocytopenia (platelets less than
100,000/microliter), and elevated transaminases. These findings
suggest possible HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes,
Low Platelets) which is a severe variant of preeclampsia. The only
definitive treatment for preeclampsia with severe features or HELLP
syndrome is delivery of the fetus, regardless of gestational age.
Magnesium sulfate is used for seizure prophylaxis but does not treat the
, 4|Page
underlying disease. Antihypertensives manage blood pressure but do
not reverse the pathophysiology. Corticosteroids may be given for fetal
lung maturity if delivery is anticipated, but they are not definitive
management.
QUESTION 4
A 62-year-old male with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease presents with worsening shortness of breath. Arterial blood gas
analysis reveals pH 7.28, PaCO2 62 mmHg, PaO2 55 mmHg, and
bicarbonate 28 mEq/L. Which of the following best describes this acid-
base disturbance?
A) Acute respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
B) Chronic respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
C) Acute respiratory acidosis with no compensation
D) Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
ANSWER: B) Chronic respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
Explanation: The arterial blood gas shows pH less than 7.35 (acidemia),
PaCO2 greater than 45 mmHg (respiratory acidosis), and elevated
bicarbonate (greater than 26 mEq/L). In acute respiratory acidosis,
bicarbonate should increase by approximately 1 mEq/L for every 10
mmHg increase in PaCO2. Here, the expected bicarbonate for acute
respiratory acidosis would be approximately 24 + (62-40)/10 = 26
mEq/L. The actual bicarbonate of 28 mEq/L exceeds this, indicating
metabolic compensation consistent with chronic respiratory acidosis
(where bicarbonate increases by 3-4 mEq/L per 10 mmHg increase in
CBMT Exam 2026-2027 BANK QUESTIONS WITH
DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS
WILL COME FROM HERE (100% Latest Already Graded
A+
QUESTION 1
A 45-year-old male presents with progressive exertional dyspnea and a
systolic ejection murmur that increases with Valsalva maneuver.
Echocardiography reveals asymmetrical septal hypertrophy with a ratio
of 1.6:1 compared to the posterior wall. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?
A) Aortic stenosis
B) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C) Mitral valve prolapse
D) Dilated cardiomyopathy
ANSWER: B) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Explanation: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized by
asymmetrical septal hypertrophy, typically with a septal-to-posterior
wall thickness ratio greater than 1.3:1. The systolic ejection murmur
increases with Valsalva maneuver due to decreased preload and
increased left ventricular outflow tract obstruction. Aortic stenosis
,2|Page
typically presents with a murmur that decreases with Valsalva. Mitral
valve prolapse produces a mid-systolic click and late systolic murmur.
Dilated cardiomyopathy presents with global hypokinesis and dilated
ventricles without the characteristic asymmetric septal hypertrophy.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following laboratory findings is most consistent with a
diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion
(SIADH)?
A) Serum sodium 128 mEq/L, serum osmolality 260 mOsm/kg, urine
osmolality 600 mOsm/kg
B) Serum sodium 135 mEq/L, serum osmolality 290 mOsm/kg, urine
osmolality 100 mOsm/kg
C) Serum sodium 118 mEq/L, serum osmolality 240 mOsm/kg, urine
osmolality 80 mOsm/kg
D) Serum sodium 142 mEq/L, serum osmolality 295 mOsm/kg, urine
osmolality 400 mOsm/kg
ANSWER: A) Serum sodium 128 mEq/L, serum osmolality 260 mOsm/kg,
urine osmolality 600 mOsm/kg
Explanation: SIADH is characterized by hyponatremia (serum sodium
less than 135 mEq/L), low serum osmolality (less than 275 mOsm/kg),
and inappropriately concentrated urine (urine osmolality greater than
100 mOsm/kg). The combination of low serum osmolality with high
urine osmolality indicates impaired free water excretion. Option A
demonstrates all these classic features. Option B shows normal sodium
and osmolality. Option C shows more severe hyponatremia but
,3|Page
inappropriately dilute urine, more consistent with polydipsia. Option D
shows normal serum sodium and osmolality.
QUESTION 3
A 28-year-old pregnant female at 32 weeks gestation presents with
new-onset hypertension (blood pressure 152/96 mmHg) and
proteinuria (3.2 grams per 24 hours). She reports right upper quadrant
pain and headache. Laboratory evaluation reveals platelet count of
78,000/microliter and elevated liver transaminases. What is the most
appropriate definitive management?
A) Magnesium sulfate administration
B) Antihypertensive therapy with labetalol
C) Delivery of the fetus
D) Corticosteroid administration for fetal lung maturity
ANSWER: C) Delivery of the fetus
Explanation: This patient presents with preeclampsia with severe
features as evidenced by blood pressure greater than 160/110 (here
152/96 is approaching but combined with other severe features),
proteinuria, right upper quadrant pain (suggestive of hepatic
involvement), headache, thrombocytopenia (platelets less than
100,000/microliter), and elevated transaminases. These findings
suggest possible HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes,
Low Platelets) which is a severe variant of preeclampsia. The only
definitive treatment for preeclampsia with severe features or HELLP
syndrome is delivery of the fetus, regardless of gestational age.
Magnesium sulfate is used for seizure prophylaxis but does not treat the
, 4|Page
underlying disease. Antihypertensives manage blood pressure but do
not reverse the pathophysiology. Corticosteroids may be given for fetal
lung maturity if delivery is anticipated, but they are not definitive
management.
QUESTION 4
A 62-year-old male with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease presents with worsening shortness of breath. Arterial blood gas
analysis reveals pH 7.28, PaCO2 62 mmHg, PaO2 55 mmHg, and
bicarbonate 28 mEq/L. Which of the following best describes this acid-
base disturbance?
A) Acute respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
B) Chronic respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
C) Acute respiratory acidosis with no compensation
D) Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
ANSWER: B) Chronic respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
Explanation: The arterial blood gas shows pH less than 7.35 (acidemia),
PaCO2 greater than 45 mmHg (respiratory acidosis), and elevated
bicarbonate (greater than 26 mEq/L). In acute respiratory acidosis,
bicarbonate should increase by approximately 1 mEq/L for every 10
mmHg increase in PaCO2. Here, the expected bicarbonate for acute
respiratory acidosis would be approximately 24 + (62-40)/10 = 26
mEq/L. The actual bicarbonate of 28 mEq/L exceeds this, indicating
metabolic compensation consistent with chronic respiratory acidosis
(where bicarbonate increases by 3-4 mEq/L per 10 mmHg increase in
