NEWEST GLOBUS 201 FINAL EXAM MCQS/GLOBUS 201 FINAL
EXAM ACTUAL EXAM 2026 COMPLETE AND ACCURATE EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS WITH
RATIONALES (100% VERIFIED ANSWERS) LATEST UPDATED
VERSION EDITION 2026 GUARANTEED PASS A+| INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A 45-year-old male presents with acute-onset, severe "tearing" chest pain
radiating to his back. His blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg in the right arm
and 100/60 mmHg in the left arm. Which of the following is the most
appropriate initial imaging modality to confirm the diagnosis?
A) Transthoracic echocardiogram
B) Magnetic resonance angiography
C) Computed tomography angiography
D) Transesophageal echocardiography
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Computed tomography angiography (CTA) is the rapid, non-invasive
imaging modality of choice for diagnosing aortic dissection, with high sensitivity
and specificity. It provides detailed anatomical information necessary for surgical
planning. While transesophageal echocardiography (D) is also sensitive, it is
operator-dependent and invasive. Magnetic resonance angiography (B) is too time -
consuming in an acute setting. Transthoracic echocardiography (A) can miss the
ascending aorta and is less sensitive for dissection.
,2. A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with sudden,
painless vision loss in her right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a pale,
swollen optic disc with a "cherry-red spot" at the fovea. What is the most likely
cause of her condition?
A) Central retinal vein occlusion
B) Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
C) Central retinal artery occlusion
D) Vitreous hemorrhage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The classic finding of a pale, swollen optic disc with a cherry-red spot
(the fovea, which receives choroidal perfusion) in the setting of acute, painless,
monocular vision loss is pathognomonic for central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO).
Central retinal vein occlusion (A) typically presents with disc edema and widespread
retinal hemorrhages ("blood and thunder"). Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (B)
is characterized by disc edema but no cherry-red spot. Vitreous hemorrhage (D)
would obscure the fundus view.
3. Which of the following serum laboratory findings is most characteristic of a
patient with primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn's syndrome)?
A) High renin, low aldosterone, high potassium
B) Low renin, high aldosterone, low potassium
C) High renin, high aldosterone, low sodium
D) Low renin, low aldosterone, high potassium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by autonomous aldosterone
secretion, leading to suppressed renin (low renin) and high aldosterone levels. The
mineralocorticoid effect causes sodium retention and potassium excretion, resulting
,in hypokalemia (low potassium). Therefore, the classic profile is low renin, high
aldosterone, and low potassium.
4. A 32-year-old woman presents with heat intolerance, tremor, and weight
loss despite increased appetite. On examination, she has a fine tremor,
tachycardia, and a diffuse, painless goiter. Laboratory tests reveal a low TSH
and elevated free T4. Which of the following would be the most appropriate
first-line therapy for this patient?
A) Radioactive iodine ablation
B) Thyroidectomy
C) Methimazole
D) Propranolol
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This patient presents with classic symptoms of Graves' disease, the most
common cause of hyperthyroidism. Methimazole, a thioamide, is the first-line
treatment for hyperthyroidism in most patients. It inhibits thyroid peroxidase,
reducing thyroid hormone synthesis. Radioactive iodine (A) is an alternative but is
not first-line in young women of childbearing age due to risks to a fetus.
Thyroidectomy (B) is reserved for specific cases. Propranolol (D) is symptomatic
therapy only.
5. A 55-year-old male with a 40-pack-year smoking history presents with a
two-month history of hoarseness and a non-productive cough. Flexible
laryngoscopy reveals a lesion on the true vocal cord. A biopsy shows
squamous cell carcinoma in situ. What is the most appropriate next step in
management?
A) Radiation therapy
B) Total laryngectomy
C) Transoral laser microsurgery
, D) Neck dissection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For squamous cell carcinoma in situ of the true vocal cord (Tis, glottic
cancer), local excision via transoral laser microsurgery is the standard of care. This
preserves voice quality while achieving high cure rates. Radiation therapy (A) is an
option but is often a second-line or alternative treatment. Total laryngectomy (B)
and neck dissection (D) are too aggressive for localized in-situ disease and are
reserved for invasive or advanced-stage cancers.
6. A patient is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 4. His
laboratory results show a serum calcium of 8.0 mg/dL (normal 8.5-10.5),
phosphorus of 6.0 mg/dL (normal 2.5-4.5), and an elevated PTH. Which of
the following is the primary pathophysiologic driver of the secondary
hyperparathyroidism in this patient?
A) Decreased renal production of calcitriol
B) Increased renal phosphate reabsorption
C) Primary parathyroid gland hyperplasia
D) Decreased calcium absorption in the gut
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In CKD, the primary driver of secondary hyperparathyroidism is the
decreased renal production of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol). Reduced
calcitriol leads to decreased calcium absorption in the gut, hypocalcemia, and
hyperphosphatemia, which all stimulate PTH release. While decreased calcium
absorption (D) and hyperphosphatemia contribute, the initial key defect is reduced
calcitriol synthesis. Increased phosphate reabsorption (B) is incorrect; phosphate
excretion falls. The parathyroid gland hyperplasia is a consequence, not a primary
driver (C).
EXAM ACTUAL EXAM 2026 COMPLETE AND ACCURATE EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS WITH
RATIONALES (100% VERIFIED ANSWERS) LATEST UPDATED
VERSION EDITION 2026 GUARANTEED PASS A+| INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A 45-year-old male presents with acute-onset, severe "tearing" chest pain
radiating to his back. His blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg in the right arm
and 100/60 mmHg in the left arm. Which of the following is the most
appropriate initial imaging modality to confirm the diagnosis?
A) Transthoracic echocardiogram
B) Magnetic resonance angiography
C) Computed tomography angiography
D) Transesophageal echocardiography
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Computed tomography angiography (CTA) is the rapid, non-invasive
imaging modality of choice for diagnosing aortic dissection, with high sensitivity
and specificity. It provides detailed anatomical information necessary for surgical
planning. While transesophageal echocardiography (D) is also sensitive, it is
operator-dependent and invasive. Magnetic resonance angiography (B) is too time -
consuming in an acute setting. Transthoracic echocardiography (A) can miss the
ascending aorta and is less sensitive for dissection.
,2. A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with sudden,
painless vision loss in her right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a pale,
swollen optic disc with a "cherry-red spot" at the fovea. What is the most likely
cause of her condition?
A) Central retinal vein occlusion
B) Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
C) Central retinal artery occlusion
D) Vitreous hemorrhage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The classic finding of a pale, swollen optic disc with a cherry-red spot
(the fovea, which receives choroidal perfusion) in the setting of acute, painless,
monocular vision loss is pathognomonic for central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO).
Central retinal vein occlusion (A) typically presents with disc edema and widespread
retinal hemorrhages ("blood and thunder"). Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (B)
is characterized by disc edema but no cherry-red spot. Vitreous hemorrhage (D)
would obscure the fundus view.
3. Which of the following serum laboratory findings is most characteristic of a
patient with primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn's syndrome)?
A) High renin, low aldosterone, high potassium
B) Low renin, high aldosterone, low potassium
C) High renin, high aldosterone, low sodium
D) Low renin, low aldosterone, high potassium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by autonomous aldosterone
secretion, leading to suppressed renin (low renin) and high aldosterone levels. The
mineralocorticoid effect causes sodium retention and potassium excretion, resulting
,in hypokalemia (low potassium). Therefore, the classic profile is low renin, high
aldosterone, and low potassium.
4. A 32-year-old woman presents with heat intolerance, tremor, and weight
loss despite increased appetite. On examination, she has a fine tremor,
tachycardia, and a diffuse, painless goiter. Laboratory tests reveal a low TSH
and elevated free T4. Which of the following would be the most appropriate
first-line therapy for this patient?
A) Radioactive iodine ablation
B) Thyroidectomy
C) Methimazole
D) Propranolol
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This patient presents with classic symptoms of Graves' disease, the most
common cause of hyperthyroidism. Methimazole, a thioamide, is the first-line
treatment for hyperthyroidism in most patients. It inhibits thyroid peroxidase,
reducing thyroid hormone synthesis. Radioactive iodine (A) is an alternative but is
not first-line in young women of childbearing age due to risks to a fetus.
Thyroidectomy (B) is reserved for specific cases. Propranolol (D) is symptomatic
therapy only.
5. A 55-year-old male with a 40-pack-year smoking history presents with a
two-month history of hoarseness and a non-productive cough. Flexible
laryngoscopy reveals a lesion on the true vocal cord. A biopsy shows
squamous cell carcinoma in situ. What is the most appropriate next step in
management?
A) Radiation therapy
B) Total laryngectomy
C) Transoral laser microsurgery
, D) Neck dissection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For squamous cell carcinoma in situ of the true vocal cord (Tis, glottic
cancer), local excision via transoral laser microsurgery is the standard of care. This
preserves voice quality while achieving high cure rates. Radiation therapy (A) is an
option but is often a second-line or alternative treatment. Total laryngectomy (B)
and neck dissection (D) are too aggressive for localized in-situ disease and are
reserved for invasive or advanced-stage cancers.
6. A patient is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 4. His
laboratory results show a serum calcium of 8.0 mg/dL (normal 8.5-10.5),
phosphorus of 6.0 mg/dL (normal 2.5-4.5), and an elevated PTH. Which of
the following is the primary pathophysiologic driver of the secondary
hyperparathyroidism in this patient?
A) Decreased renal production of calcitriol
B) Increased renal phosphate reabsorption
C) Primary parathyroid gland hyperplasia
D) Decreased calcium absorption in the gut
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In CKD, the primary driver of secondary hyperparathyroidism is the
decreased renal production of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol). Reduced
calcitriol leads to decreased calcium absorption in the gut, hypocalcemia, and
hyperphosphatemia, which all stimulate PTH release. While decreased calcium
absorption (D) and hyperphosphatemia contribute, the initial key defect is reduced
calcitriol synthesis. Increased phosphate reabsorption (B) is incorrect; phosphate
excretion falls. The parathyroid gland hyperplasia is a consequence, not a primary
driver (C).
